Act No: CAP. 253
Act Title: MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS
SUBSIDIARY LEGISLATION
Arrangement of Sections
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (ELECTION OF MEMBERS OF THE BOARD) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Notice of election to the Board
4.

Nomination of candidates
5.

Election where nominations do not exceed vacancies
6.

Voting procedure
7.

Counting of votes and elections of candidates
8.

Appeals

SCHEDULES

FIRST SCHEDULE [r. 4] —

FORM
SECOND SCHEDULE [r. 6] —

VOTING PAPER

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (ELECTION OF MEMBERS OF THE BOARD) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Election of Members of the Board) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, "Returning Officer" means a person appointed by the Board for the purposes of these Rules.

[L.N. 209/1983, r. 2, L.N. 216/1994, r. 2(a).]
3.
Notice of election to the Board
(1)

The Cabinet Secretary may, from time to time, by notice in the Gazette and in such newspapers circulating in Kenya as he may think fit, declare that an election to the Board of up to the five medical practitioners and two dentists prescribed under paragraph (f) of subsection 4(1) of the Act shall be held on a day to be specified in the notice, which day is in these Rules referred to as "election day".
(2)

The notice shall be so published at least ninety days before election day except in the case of the first election of such members in respect of which notice may be given at any time before election day.
4.
Nomination of candidates
(1)

Each medical practitioner or dentist registered in Kenya may, in the form set out in the First Schedule, nominate one registered medical practitioner or dentist, as the case may be, as a candidate for election to the Board;

Provided that nobody shall nominate himself as a candidate.
(2)

The nomination paper shall contain in block letters the full names of both the proposer and of the candidate and their signatures, which signatures shall be made in the presence of a registered medical practitioner or dentist, as the case may be, of at least five years’ practical experience in Kenya as indicated in the form; and the paper shall also be signed by five registered medical practitioners in support of a candidate for election to the Board as a medical practitioner or three registered dentists in support of a candidate for election to the Board as a dentist.
(3)

Each nomination paper, when completed in accordance with paragraph (2), may be either delivered in person to the office of, or sent by registered post to, the Returning Officer in time for it to be received by the Returning Officer not later than thirty days before election day.
(4)

No nomination paper shall be valid unless the provisions of this rule have been strictly complied with and the candidate has indicated his willingness to stand for election.
(5)

Any nomination form received by the Returning Officer which does not comply with the provisions of paragraph (2) or which is not received within the time prescribed under paragraph (3) shall be rejected by the Returning Officer but shall be kept and be available for inspection by an interested party for a period of at least six months after the election day to which it relates.
5.
Election where nominations do not exceed vacancies
(1)

If the number of persons correctly nominated for either profession under rule 4 of these Rules does not exceed the number of vacancies specified in the notice published under rule 3, all the persons nominated for that profession shall be deemed to have been elected and the names shall be published in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (4) of rule 7 of these Rules.
(2)

If the number of the persons nominated for either profession exceeds the vacancies on the Board in respect of that profession, the voting prescribed in rule 6 of these Rules shall be followed.
6.
Voting procedure
(1)

In the event of an election having to be held, the Registrar shall not later than twenty-one days before election day send by registered post to every medical practitioner or dentist, as the case may require, registered in Kenya, a voting paper in the form set out in the Second Schedule which shall contain the names of all candidates who have been duly nominated in accordance with rule 4 together with a suitably addressed envelope for returning the voting paper.
(2)

Each medical practitioner or dentist who receives a voting paper may, if he wishes to record his vote, place an X against the names of such candidates (not exceeding the number in respect of his side of the profession specified in the notice published under rule 3) for whom he wishes to vote, and shall sign and date the voting form and write his full name in capital letters in the spaces provided for that purpose; and a voting paper which does not contain those particulars, or which contains more than those particulars, may be treated as a spoilt voting paper and, if so treated, shall not be taken into account for the purposes of the election.
(3)

The voter shall then return the voting paper in the special envelope sent to him, which shall be sealed before it is despatched by delivering it personally or by sending it by registered post to the Returning Officer at the address appearing on the envelope.
(4)

A voting paper received by the Returning Officer after noon on election day shall not be opened by him until after the election has been completed and the results have been published in accordance with rule 7, but shall be kept and be available for inspection by an interested party for a period of at least six months after the election day to which it relates.
(5)

Personal canvassing for a candidate within the medical or dental professions by any reasonable means shall not disqualify a candidate, but canvassing by posters, press or other mass media or advertisements shall lead to a candidate being disqualified.

[L.N. 216/1994, r. 2(b).]
7.
Counting of votes and elections of candidates
(1)

After 4.30 p.m. on election day, the Returning Officer shall, in the presence of the Registrar, a Deputy Director of Medical Services, one registered medical practitioner and one dentist nominated by the Returning Officer, count the votes given for each candidate, and shall forthwith declare those candidates, not exceeding the number of vacancies to be filled, who receive the highest number of votes to be duly elected to the Board.
(2)

Candidates or their authorized representatives may be present at the counting of the votes if they so wish.
(3)

Election shall be by a simple majority but in the event of a tie, the succesful candidate shall be determined by a lot drawn by the Returning Officer in such manner as he shall decide.
(4)

The names of the successful candidates shall be published within fourteen days after election day in a notice in the Gazette and in such newspapers circulating in Kenya as the Returning Officer may think fit.
8.
Appeals

A person aggrieved by a decision of the Returning Officer on an election matter may appeal to the Cabinet Secretary within fourteen days of the publication of the results of the election in the Gazette and on any such appeal the Cabinet Secretary may annul the election or may vary any decision of the Returning Officer in such manner as he may think fit.

FIRST SCHEDULE

[r. 4]

FORM

Serial No. .........................

CounterfoilSerial No. ..............

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

NOMINATION PAPER

Nomination of a candidate for election to the Board.

Name and address of nominated candidate in full (block letters) and

Registration No. .............................................................

Name and address of proposer in full (block letters) and Registration No. ..............

Signature of proposer .............................................................

Signed by the above-named ................................................ (proposer)

in my presence this .............. day of .................. 20 ............

Full Name (BLOCK LETTERS), Address

.......................................

and Registration No. .................

(Registered Medical/Dental* Practitioner

.......................................

of not less than five years experience in

.......................................

Kenya)

Full Names (BLOCK LETTERS)

Address

Reg. No.

Signatures

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

...................

of not less than five supporters (who must be medical practitioners in the case of a candidate who is a medical practitioner); or

Full Names (BLOCK LETTERS)

Address

Reg. No.

Signatures

......................

...................

...................

...................

......................

...................

...................

...................

......................

...................

...................

...................

......................

...................

...................

...................

of not less than three supporters (who must be dentists in the case of a candidate who is a dentist).

I agree to accept this nomination

Signature of candidate ....................................................

Signed by the above-named ........................................... (candidate)

in my presence this ........................ day of ..................., 20........

Full Name (BLOCK LETTERS), Address

.......................................

and Registration No. .................

(Registered Medical/Dental* Practitioner

.......................................

of not less than five years experience in

.......................................

Kenya)

*Delete where applicable

SECOND SCHEDULE

[r. 6]

VOTING PAPER

CounterfoilSerial No. .......

Serial No. ...........

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

VOTING PAPER-MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS

Names of Candidates

Here insert X against names of candidates for whom you wish to vote

Name and address of voter in block letters and Registration No. ..................

Signature of voter ........................................................

Date ......................................................................

CounterfoilSerial No. .......

Serial No. ...........

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

VOTING PAPER-DENTISTS

Names of Candidates

Here insert X against names of candidates for whom you wish to vote

Name and address of voter in block letters and Registration No. ..................

Signature of voter ....................................................

Date ..................................................................

1.

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, and shall be deemed to have come into force on the 1st January, 1978.
2.

The register of medical practitioners and dentists to be maintained by the Registrar in accordance with section 5(3) of the Act, shall be in Form I in the First Schedule to these Rules.
3.

Application for registration as a medical or dental practitioner in accordance with section 6(1) of the Act shall be in Form II in the First Schedule to these Rules.
4.

The certificate of registration to be issued by the Registrar in accordance wFith section 7 of the Act shall be in Form III in the First Schedule to these Rules.
5.

Application for a licence to render medical or dental services in accordance with section 13 of the Act shall be in Form IV in the First Schedule to these Rules.
6.

A licence issued to render medical or dental services in accordance with section 13 of the Act shall be in Form V in the First Schedule to these Rules.
7.

Application for a licence for private medical or dental practice in accordance with section 15(1) of the Act shall be in Form VI in the First Schedule to these Rules.
8.

A licence for private medical or dental practice in accordance with section 15(2) of the Act shall be in Form VII in the First Schedule to these Rules.
8A.

The Board may charge additional late application fee of five hundred shillings in respect of applications submitted out of time under rules 4(2), 7(2) and 28(2) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Practice) Rules.
9.

Application for recognition of specialist or sub-specialist status shall be in Form VIII in the First Schedule.
10.

The fees set out in the Second Schedule shall be payable in respect of the matters set out therein.
11.

Application for registration of a medical institution in accordance with rule 4(1) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules shall be in Form IX set out in the First Schedule to these Rules.
12.

The certificate of registration to be issued by the Registrar in accordance with rule 4(3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules shall be in Form X set out in the First Schedule to these Rules.
13.

Application for a licence to operate an approved medical institution in accordance with rule 5(1) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules shall be in Form XI set out in the First Schedule to these Rules.
14.

The annual fees assessment form prescribed in rule 5(3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules shall be in Form XII set out in the First Schedule to these Rules.
15.

A licence issued to operate an approved medical institution in accordance with Rule 5(4) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules shall be in Form XIII set out in the First Schedule to these Rules.
16.

The Board shall when inspecting outpatient medical institutions pursuant to rule 11 of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules use the checklist in Form XIV set out in the First Schedule.
17.

The Board shall when inspecting inpatient medical institutions pursuant to rule 11 of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules use the checklist in Form XV set out in the First Schedule.

[L.N. 76/1983, r. 2, L.N. 26/2000, r. 2, L.N. 75/2012, r. 2, L.N. 4/2017, r. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8.]

FIRST SCHEDULE

FORMS

[L.N. 76/1983, r. 2, L.N. 26/2000, r. 2, L.N. 161/2015, r. 2.]

FORM I

(r. 2)

REGISTER OF MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS

No.

Full Name

Address

Basic Qualification

Date of Registration

Additional Qualifications

Date and No. of original Registration

Remarks

________________________

FORM II

(r. 2(a))

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT

(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION FOR PERMANENT REGISTRATION AS A MEDICAL OR DENTAL PRACTITIONER

1.

Surname ................. First Name............. Other Names ...........
2.

Date of Birth ........................ Nationality .......................
3.

ID No./Passport No. ............................................
4.

Address ...... Code ...... Town .... County ..... Cell Phone .........
5.

Email ..............................................
6.

Degree, Diploma or licence held .......... Date(s) qualified .......
7.

Name of medical/dental school ............... Email ................
8.

Name of Internship Training Centre ........... Email ...........

Period of internship from ............................. to ........................

9.

Particulars and testimonials covering the period of experience .........
10.

Name of employer ....................................................

Address .................. Code .........Town .......County............

Email ......................... Tel ...........................

Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Coloured passport size photo;

(iii) Certfied copies of professional & academic certificates;

(iv) Evidence of passing Board's pre-registration examination;

(v) Internship completion Assessment Forms dully filled and stamped;

(vi) Evidence of registration from EAC Partner States' Boards and councils (for those applying for reciprocal registration);

(vii) Registration Fee KSh. 8,000.00

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643 Milimani Branch. SWIFT CODE: KCBLKENX, BANK. KCB, BANK CODE: 01175.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and that I have met the above requirements.

Signature of Applicant: .................................... Date ..................

FOR OFFICIAL USE

The process will take a maximum of two weeks.

PREPARED

APPROVED/NOT APPROVED

Name: .................................Designation ....................................Signature ......................................Date ..............................................RECOMMENDED:Name: .........................................Designation .................................Signature .................................Date ..........................................

Name ...............................................Designation .....................................Signature .........................................Date ................................................

________________________

FORM III

(r. 4)

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT

(Cap. 253)

CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION AS A MEDICAL PRACTITIONER OR DENTIST

Registration No. ......................

Dr./Mr/Mrs./Miss* ..................................................

................................................... (full names BLOCK LETTERS) has been registered as a Medical/Dental* Practitioner in accordance with the provisions of section 6 of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Act (Cap. 253).

Dated this ............... day of .................., 20 ............

Seal of the Board.

..............................................ChairmanMedical Practitioners and Dentists Board

...............................................Registrar ofMedical Practitioners and Dentists
*Delete where not applicable.

________________________

FORM IVA

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT

(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION FOR MEDICAL AND DENTAL PRACTITIONERS INTERNSHIP LICENCE

1.

Surname .................... First name ....................... Other names ...............
2.

Date of Birth ......................... Nationality ............................
3.

Address ................. Code .................... Town ............... Tel ..............

Email ...............................................................
4.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (if degree not in English provide official translation)

...................................................................
5.

Name of Medical/Dental School ................... Address ............... Code ...............

Email ......................................................
6.

Name of Internship Training Centre .................. Address ............ code .............

Email .........................................................

Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Coloured passport size photograph;

(iii) Evidence of passing Board Internship Qualifying Exam (foreign trained);

(iv) Copy of posting letter from the Ministry of Health;

(v) Evidence of completing Medical/Dental Training in an accredited University in Kenya;

(vi) Evidence of having completed Medical/Dental Training in an institution within the EAC that qualifies for reciprocal recognition;

(vii) Licence fee KSh. 5000.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and I have met the above requirements.

Signature of applicant ................................ Date ..........................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

The process takes a maximum of two (2) weeks

PREPARED BY

APPROVED/NOT APPROVED

Name: ................................. Designation .........................Signature .............................. Date ....................................CHECKED BY:Name: ................................. Designation .........................Signature .............................. Date ....................................

Name ....................................Designation .............................Signature ..............................Date .....................................

________________________

FORM IVB

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT

(Cap. 253)

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

INTERNSHIP LICENCE FOR MEDICAL AND DENTAL PRACTITIONERS

Dr. .................................................................................

(full name)

of ..................................................................................

(address)

Qualifications..........................................................................

Is hereby licensed by the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board to render Medical services at .......................................

(name of approved institution)

In accordance with the provisions of section 13 of the Act.

Dated the ............................. 20 ...............................

.........................................................

Registrar

Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

CONDITIONS OF LICENCE:
1.

This licence is valid for a period of 11 MONTHS from the date hereof.
2.

The licensee is authorized to render medical or dental services as the case may be, only at the institution mentioned in this licence.
3.

The licence is entitled to engage in training employment.
4.

This licence does not entitle you to engage in private practice.
5.

Signature of Holder ...................................................

________________________

FORM VA

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

APPLICATION FOR RETENTION IN THE YEAR .............. REGISTER

(ALL DOCTORS)

(All fields are mandatory)
1.

Surname ........................... Other Names .......................

Reg. No. ...............................................................
2.

Date of Birth ........................ Nationality .....................
3.

Address .................. Code ............... Town ............... Mobile No ..................
4.

Email ....................................................................
5.

Name of Employer .................. Address ............ Code ......... Town .............

Email ..................................................................
6.

Work station .................. County .................. Sub-County.
7.

Basic Qualifications .................... Postgraduate qualifications ..................
8.

Recognized Speciality ............................... Sub Specialty ...............................

Requirements:

(a)

Acquire a minimum of 50 CPD points in the calendar year
(b)

Evidence of employment if practitioner is not in private practice
(c)

Renewal fee Kshs. 4,000

All payments should be made to:

Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

Account No: 1103158643,

Bank: KCB, Milimani Branch.

SWIFT CODE: KCBLKENX

BANK CODE: 01175

*Transactions can be undertaken at any KCB Branch countrywide
(d)

Late payment will attract 50% penalty. Penalty date is 30th September ............

Computer generated and stamped banking slip together with should be, within the first week, either emailed to info@kenyamedicalboard.org or posted to Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board Office.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and I have fulfilled all the above requirements.

Signature .................................. Date .............................

FOR OFFICIAL USE

PREPARED

APPROVED/NOT APPROVED

Name: ................. Designation ............ Name ...........................

Signature .................. Date ................ Designation ....................

RECOMMENDED:

Name ............... Designation .............. Signature .........................

Signature ............... Date ................... Date ...................

Physical Address: MP & DB House-, Woodlands Road, off Lenana RoadAddress: P. 0 Box 44839-00 100, NAIROBI — KenyaErnail: info@kenyamedicalboard.org

Tel: +254 20-272 8752 /+254 20 272 4994 /+254 20 271 1478Mobile: +254 720771478/+254 736771478Website: www.medicalboard.co.ke

________________________

FORM VB

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD

ANNUAL RETENTION CERTIFICATE

Date of first registration (date) Registration No. (Reg. No.)

This is to certify that ..................................................................

Whose qualifications are: ........................................... (Qualifications)

And whose registered address is: .......................................... (Address)

Having duly complied with the provisions of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board is entitled to practice during the year (year).

A retention certificate must be renewed for very subsequent year. This confirmation is evidence of retention in the Register only until 1st December (year).

This certificate does not allow the holder to engage in Private practice.

Seal of the Board.

Dated ........................... 20 ................

(Signature)

.................................. (DMS) ........................................

Registrar, Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board.

________________________

FORM VI

Serial No. .................................

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT

(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION OF A PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTION

PART I

(To be completed by the applicant in duplicate)

1.

CONTACT DETAILS OF THE PROPOSED INSTITUTION

(Block Letters)

(a)

Name of the Institution ................. Address .....................
(b)

Telephone Number ................... Mobile ..........................
(c)

Email .................................................
2.

TYPE (State whether Hospital, Nursing Home, Maternity Home, Health Centre, Dispensary, Laboratory, etc.).

........................................................................
3.

LOCATION OF THE INSTITUTION

(a)

Town/Centre/Market ............................................
(b)

Location ...........................................................
(c)

County .............................................................

PART II

(To be completed by the applicant in duplicate)

1.

FULL NAMES AND ADDRESS OF THE APPLICANT

(Block Letters)

.......................................

STATE IF APPLICANT IS A DIRECTOR AND/OR ADMINISTRATOR OF THE INSTITUTION

.............................................................................

*Delete where inapplicable

2.

NATIONALITY OF THE APPLICANT

.....................................................................
3.

PLACE AND DATE OF BIRTH .....................................................
4.

NATIONAL IDENTITY CARD No. ..........................................

(Attach Photocopy)

5.

PASSPORT No. (if applicable) ...............................

ADDRESS.............................................................
6.

WORK PERMIT No. (if applicable)

.....................................................................................

(Attach documentary evidence-copies only).

PART III

(To be completed by the applicant in duplicate)

Give full names of Directors of the institution including the following: Nationalities, Passport Numbers, Work Permit Numbers, Email Address, Kenya National Identity Card Numbers, etc.

(Attach copies of documentary evidence).

(i) ...........................................................
(ii) ..........................................................
(iii) ............................................................
(Use extra space if necessary).

PART IV

(To be completed by the applicant in duplicate)

1.

Give full names and registration number of the medical or dental practitioner who shall be in-charge of the patient health care at the proposed institution:

...............................................................................................

....................................................................................................
2.
(a)

Give full details of professional qualifications of the person named at paragraph (1) above. Include year and place where obtained;
(b)

State work experience of the person named at paragraph (1) of PART IV above and name institutions where obtained and date;

(c)

Attach documentary evidence (photocopies) in each case. (Please use extra space if necessary).

.................................................
3.
(a)

Give full names and professional qualifications of any other person(s), identified by your institution to undertake patient health care at the institution (e.g., Clinical Officers, Nurses, Laboratory Technicians, X-ray Staff, Doctors, Technicians, Pharmaceutical Technicians, etc.).
(b)

Attach documentary evidence (photocopies) in each case. (Please use extra space if necessary).

(i) ..........................................................................
(ii) ..........................................................................
(iii) .........................................................................
(iv) .........................................................................
(v) ..........................................................................
(vi) .........................................................................

PART V

(To be completed by Medical Officer of Health in duplicate)

INSPECTION REPORT FOR PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS - FOR REGISTRATION PURPOSES
1.

NAME OF THE INSTITUTION ...................................
2.

PHYSICAL LOCATION

(a)

Plot No./L.R. No .............................................................
(b)

Market/Centre/Town* .....................................................
(c)

Street/Road .................................................................
(d)

Location ......................................................................
(e)

County ........................................................................
3.

PREMISES GENERAL INFORMATION

(a)

Plot area (in hectares) ..........................................
(b)

Water supply ..................................... adequate/inadequate*

(*Delete where inapplicable)

(c)

Refuse disposal:

(i) Incinerator available/Not available.*
(ii) Other modes of refuse disposal (Specify) ......................................................
(d)

Environmental suitability ................. recommended/not recommended.

*State reasons for not recommending:

.............................................................
4.

PLAN OF THE INSTITUTION

(a)

Approved/No approved* by the local District Development Committee (attach copy of the plan) and documentary evidence (copies) of approval of the institution by the D.D.C
5.

OUT-PATIENT SERVICES

(See attached minimum requirements for General Practice).

(a)

Waiting Bay/Reception Area/Room:*

(i) Seating capacity ......................................................
(ii) Area (in square metres) ...........................................
(iii) Construction .......................................... Covered/ Not Covered.*
(b)

Examination Rooms:

(i) Number of rooms ...................................................
(ii) State if equipment inspected meets the minimum requirements. Attach separate signed list of equipment inspected if necessary. ..................................................................
(c)

Treatment room:

(i) Number of rooms ...................................................
(ii) State if equipment meets the minimum requirements. Attach separate signed list of equipment inspected.

*Delete where inapplicable

6.

IN-PATIENT SERVICES

(a)

Female Ward:

(i) Size of the ward (in square metres) .................................
(ii) Number of beds ..............................................................
(iii) Number of toilets ...........................................................
(iv) Number of bathrooms ...................................................
(v) Number of sluice rooms .................................................
(b)

Male Ward:

(i) Size of the ward (in square metres) .................................
(ii) Number of beds ..............................................................
(iii) Number of toilets ...........................................................
(iv) Number of bathrooms ...................................................
(v) Number of sluice rooms .................................................
(c)

Maternity Ward:

(i) Size of the ward (in square metres) .............................
(ii) Number of beds .........................................................
(iii) Number of toilets ...................................................
(iv) Number of bathrooms ...................................................
(v) Number of sluice rooms ...............................................
(vi) Placenta pit depth (in metres) .....................................
(d)

Paediatric Ward:

(i) Size of the ward (in square metres) ..................................
(ii) Number of beds .......................................................
(iii) Number of toilets ......................................................
(iv) Number of bathrooms .........................................................
(v) Number of sluice rooms ....................................................
7.

CLINICAL SUPPORT SERVICES

(a)

Pharmacy:

(i) Area of the waiting room (in square metres) ...............................
(ii) Number of dispensing windows ................................................
(iii) Number of antibiotic (safe cupboards) ....................................
(iv) Number of drug stores ......................................................
(b)

Laboratory:
(see attached minimum requirements)
(i) Reception area (in square metres) ............................................
(ii) Seating capacity ....................................................
(iii) Size of work-room (in square metres) ......................................
(iv) Equipment (attach a separate signed list of equipment and reagents/chemicals inspected).
(c) X- ray Unit:
(See attached minimum requirements).
(i) Size of the reception area (in square metres) .................................
(ii) Seating capacity ...................................................................
(iii) Number of screening rooms ......................................................
(iv) Standard of radiation protection ................................................
Adequate/Not Adequate.*
(v)

Equipment (attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).
(d)

Operating Theatre:
(i)

Minor theatre equipment (attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).
(ii)

Major theatre (indicate by a tick or cross in the box next to the item to show whether available or not).

Induction room ............................... ☐

Operating room ............................... ☐

Recovery room ................................ ☐

Lighting ............................. (Adequate/Not Adequate).*

Equipment ........................ (attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).
8.

OTHER SUPPORTING SERVICES

(a)

Kitchen;

(i) Cooking facility (specify) ............................
(ii) Non-Perishable store ........................ (Adequate/Not Adequate).*
(iii) Perishable store .............................. (Adequate/Not Adequate).*
(b)

Laundry Type (specify) ..............................
(c)

Mortuary:

(i) Available/ Not Available.*
(ii) Refrigerated/ Not refrigerated.*
(iii) Appropriately located /Not appropriately located.*
(If not appropriately located, state why)
(iv)

Body capacity ..........................................
(v)

Adequate privacy /Not adequate privacy.*
(vi)

Number of ambulances ....................................
(vii)

Other facility (specify and use extra space if necessary) ........................
*Delete where inapplicable

PART VI

(To be completed by the applicant in duplicate)

1.

Give full names and designations of members of the D.H.M.T who participated in the inspection of the institution.

NAME

DESIGNATION

(i) .................................................

.................................................

(ii) .................................................

.................................................

(iii) .................................................

.................................................

(iv) .................................................

.................................................

(v) ..................................................

...............................................

(vi) .................................................

.................................................

(vii) .................................................

.................................................

(viii) .................................................

.................................................

(ix) .................................................

.................................................

(x) .................................................

.................................................
2.

CERTIFICATE BY M.O.H

I, Dr ............................................................................

State full names in Block Letters)

being the Medical Officer of Health in ........................................

County, do hereby certify that the inspection of ..............................

was conducted by the County Health Management Team of ...................... on

.............. day of ................ 20 ......... under my personal supervision.

I further certify that the inspection was witnessed by

Dr./Mr./Mrs./Miss ................................................ being the

Owner/Director/Applicant* and that .............................................

the said institution does/does not* meet the minimum requirements for Registration/Licensing purposes.

Dated this ....................... day of ....................... 20 ........................

Signature....................................

(Medical Officer of Health)

Name of Station ........................................

Address.................................................

Telephone Number ....... I .................

*Delete where inapplicable

PART VII

(To be completed by the Applicant/Director/Owner of the institution in duplicate)

I, Dr./Mr./Mrs./Miss* ..................................................

(Full Names in Block Letters)

hereby certify that all the information given by me in the application form is true and correct and that I personally witnessed the inspection which was conducted by the Medical Officer of Health on

.......................... day of ..................... 20 ...........

Signature..............................................

Name in Full .......................................

APPLICANT TO NOTE:

This form MUST be returned to the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board within a period not exceeding three months from the date of issue. Applications which are not returned within the stipulated period shall be time barred.

PART VIII

(For the purposes of vetting applications and enforcement of Laws, Regulations and Decisions of the I.R.C. and the Board.)

(a)

Name of the institution acceptable to the IRC ....................
(b)

Type of institution ................................
(c)

Give Name, Type, Location and Registration Number of other institutions operated by operated by the Applicant/ Director or affiliated to the institution named in this application:

(i) ..............................................
(ii) .............................................
(iii) ............................................
(iv) ............................................
(Use extra space if necessary).

*Delete where inapplicable

(d)

Give full particulars of criminal court proceedings for violations of any of the following Ministry of Health laws by any of the institution named in paragraph (c) in this application (Cap. 253, Cap. 260, Cap. 257, Cap. 244, Cap. 245, Cap. 254 and Cap. 242) (Quote court case references in each case for the past three years proceeding the date of this application).

...........................................................................
(use extra space if necessary).
(e)

Give names of institutions, their location and registration numbers from among those named at paragraph (c) in this application which have defaulted in licence fees payment during the past three years. State each year of default and penalty imposed and whether or not/penalty has been paid and fees recovered:

....................................................................................
(use extra space if necessary).
(f)

Give names of any of the institutions named at paragraph (c) in this application which the Board has authorized closure during the past three years (quote minutes references of the I.R.C. and state the institutions' registration number and place of location).

........................................................................................
(Use extra space if necessary).
(g)

F.R.L. Serial No. and date of this application ..................................
(h)

Licence Fees Category (quote I.R.C. minutes reference) .......................
(i)

F.R.L. Receipt No. and Date ................................................
(j)

Date application returned to applicant ............................................
(k)

Date application re-submitted by applicant .....................................
(l)

Registration Fees Receipt No. and Date ...........................................
CERTIFICATE BY AN OFFICER AUTHORIZED FOR THE PURPOSES OF PART VIII OF THIS APPLICATION
(This certificate must be countersigned by the Registrar)

I certify that the institution for which this application is made and its Owner/Director/Applicant or its Administrator has/has not been* subject to the criminal proceedings in violation of any of the laws named in Paragraph (d) in this application and that all information given under PART VIII of this application is correct and true.

Dated this ................... day of .................... 20 .............

...........................................................Authorized Officer

Registrar, Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

PART IX
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
1.

INSTITUTION REGISTRATION COMMITTEE'S RECOMMENDATIONS

............................................................................

..............................................................................

Dated this ............ day of ........................ 20 ........

Chairman Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

Chairman, Committee

*Delete where inapplicable

2.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE REGISTRAR BY THE BOARD

....................................................................................................

Dated this ............... day of ........... 20 .....

.......................................................

Chairman Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

______________________________

PART VIA
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION FOR RECOGNITION OF SPECIALIST/SUB-SPECIALITY STATUS
1.

Surname .................. Other Names .................. Reg. No ...............
2.

Date of Birth ....................................... Nationality .................
3.

Address ............... Code ............... Town .................. Cell Phone ..................

Email ................................................................................
4.

Employer ........................................................
5.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (give name of medical school and date qualified)

........................................................................
6.

Specialty/sub-speciality applied for .............................................
7.

Postgraduate qualifications: medical/dental school ...............................

Date qualified ........................................................
8.

Number of years of experience in speciality/sub-speciality after obtaining postgraduate qualifications (indicate the number of years or months, name of institution(s) attended and name of two supervisors whose address must accompany this application).

No. of Years/Months .............. Name of Institution ............ Country ................

Supervisors: (a) Name ......................... Address ................ Code ...............

Email : ...................... Telephone: .........................

(b)

Name ...................... Address ....................... Code ..................

Email: ....................... Telephone: ........................

Requirements:

(i) Copy of post graduate qualifications and official transcripts;

(ii) Evidence of completion of 2 year full time rotation in a recognized institution for specialist recognition;

(iii) Supportive recommendation from two (2) supervisors in the relevant field;

(iv) For sub-speciality recognition, the applicant should show evidence of training for at least one year;

(v) Speciality and sub-speciality must be in the gazetted list;

(vi) Application fee- KSh. 20,000.00

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and that I have met all the above requirements.

Signature of Applicant ......................... Date ...................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

This process takes a maximum of two (2) weeks.

PREPARED BY:-Name: .........Designation ............Signature ................ Date ..................CHECKED BYName: ......... Designation ...........Signature ............... Date ...............

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDSpecialty/SubSpecialty.............Name .............................Designation ...........................Signature ................. Date .................
______________________________

FORM VII

(r. 8)

Licence No. ...............................

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
LICENCE FOR PRIVATE MEDICAL OR DENTAL PRACTICE
1.

Dr./Mr./Mrs./Miss* ........................................

....................................................................

(full names in BLOCK LETTERS) of ................................................

...................................................... (full address) is hereby licensed in accordance with the provisions of section 15 of the Act to engage in private practice on his/her* own behalf as a private medical/dental practitioner or to be employed whole-time/part-time*, by a private practitioner, Dr./ Mr./Mrs./Miss* ......................... (name and address of the employer private practitioner.)

2.

This licence entitles the holder to engage in General Practice/Specialist Practice* in (specify discipline).

3.

Authorized premises to be used for the purposes of private practice (detailed particulars and location of authorized premises).
4.

This licence shall expire on the last day of ..................., 20.............
5.

No change of premises is permitted without the authority of the Board.

Dated this ..................... day of ................. 20 ................

.....................Registrar of Medical Practitioners and Dentists

*Delete where not applicable.
______________________________

FORM VIII

(r. 9)
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR RECOGNITION OF SPECIALIST/SUB-SPECIALITY STATUS
1.

Surname (BLOCK LETTERS).............................................
2.

Other names .....................................................
3.

Registration No. .............................................
4.

Address ..........................................................
5.

Place and date of birth ..................................
6.

Nationality .................................................
7.

Places of practice .........................................
8.

Degree or diploma (give name of Medical School and date qualified) .......
9.

Speciality or sub-speciality in which specialist/sub-specialist status sought (state clearly) ...
10.
(a)

Postgraduate qualifications (indicate the discipline, name of institution, country and date qualified) ...................
(b)

Duration of the course(s) .......................................
11.

Number of years of experience after obtaining postgraduate qualifications (indicate the number of years or months, name of institution(s) attended and name of supervisor, whose letter must accompany this application) ......................................................
12.

List of publications (if any) .....................................
13.

Number of years experience in sub-speciality (indicate clearly number of years or months, name of institution(s) attended and name of supervisor, whose letter must accompany this application)
14.

I solemnly and sincerely declare that the information given is true.

Dated the ......................., 20..................

Signature of applicant

______________________________

FORM IX

(r. 4(1))
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION OF A PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTION

PART I

(To be completed by the applicant in triplicate)
1.

Name and Address of the Proposed Institution (Block Letters) ................................
2.

Type (State whether Hospital, Nursing Home, Maternity Home, Health Centre, Dispensary, Laboratory, etc. ..................
3.

Location of the Institution: .......................................

(a)

Town/Centre/Market* ....................
(b)

Location ..........................................
(c)

District .........................................
(d)

Province .........................................
*Delete where inapplicable

PART II

(To be completed by the applicant in triplicate)
1.

Full Name and Address of the Applicant (BLOCK LETTERS) ........................
2.

State if Applicant is a Director and/or Administrator of the Institution ......
3.

Nationality of the Applicant ..........................
4.

Place and Date of Birth .................................
5.

Kenya National Identity Card No. ........................

(Attach photocopy)

6.

Passport No. (if applicable) ...............
7.

Work Permit No. (if applicable) ..................

(Attach documentary evidence-copies only).

PART III
(To be completed by the applicant in triplicate)

Give full names of Directors of the Institution including the following: Nationalities, Passport Numbers, Work Permit Numbers, Kenya National Identity Card Numbers, etc.

(Attach copies of documentary evidence)
(a)

......................................................
(b)

.......................................................
(c)

.........................................................

(Use extra space if necessary)

PART IV

(To be completed by the applicant in triplicate)
1.

Give full names of Medical or Dental Practitioner who shall be in-charge of patient health care at the proposed institution ..................................
2.
(a)

Give full details of professional qualifications of the person named in paragraph (1) above. Include year and place where obtained.
(b)

State work experience of the person named in paragraph (1) above and name institutions where obtained and date.
(c)

Attach copies of documentary evidence in each case. (Use extra space if necessary)
3.
(a)

Give full names and professional qualifications of any other person(s), identified by your institution, to undertake patient health care at the institution (e.g. Clinical Officers, Nurses, Laboratory Technicians, X-ray staff, Doctors, Technicians, Pharmaceutical Technologies, etc.)..............................................
(b)

Attach copies of documentary evidence in each case. (Use extra space if necessary).

(i) ....................................................................
(ii) ....................................................................
(iii) ...................................................................
(iv) ....................................................................
(v) .....................................................................
(vi) ....................................................................

/PART V -
(To be completed by the Medical Officer of Health in triplicate)
INSPECTION REPORT FOR PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTION FOR REGISTRATION PURPOSES
1.

Name of Institution ......................................................
2.

Physical Location:

(a)

Plot No./L/R. No. ................................
(b)

Market/Centre/Town* ..............................
(c)

Street/Road* .....................................
(d)

Division .........................................
(e)

District .........................................
(f)

Province .........................................

*Delete where inapplicable.
3.

Premises General Information:

(a)

Plot area (in hectares) ......................
(b)

Water supply .............. adequate/inadequate*
(c)

Refuse Disposal:

(i) Incenerator available/Not available *.
(ii) Other modes of refuse disposal.
(Specify)

..........................................................................................

*Delete where inapplicable.
(d)

Environmental suitability ...................... recommended/not recommended* State reasons for not recommending.

.......................................................................

.......................................................................

4.

Plan of the Institution:

(a)

Approved/Not approved* by the local District Development Committee (attach copy of the plan) and documentary evidence (copies) of approval of the institution by the D.D.C.
5.

Out-patient Services:

(See attached minimum requirements for General Practice).

(a)

Waiting Bay/Reception Area/Room:*

(i) Seating capacity ....................................
(ii) Area (in square metres) ............................
(iii) Construction ................... covered/not covered*.
(b)

Examination Rooms:..............................

(i) Number of rooms....................
(ii) State if equipment inspected meets the minimum requirements. (Attach separate signed list of equipment inspected if necessary).

.........................................

.........................................

........................................

(c)

Treatment rooms:

(i) Number of rooms ..........................................
(ii) State if equipment meets the minimum requirements.

(Attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).
6.

In-patient services:

(a)

Female Ward:

(i) Size of ward (in square metres) ..................
(ii) Number of beds ..........................
(iii) Number of toilets ......................
(iv) Number of bathrooms .....................
(v) Number of sluice rooms .....................
(b)

Male Ward:

(i) Size of ward (in square metres) ....................
(ii) Number of beds ......................
(iii) Number of toilets ......................
(iv) Number of bathrooms ....................
(v) Number of sluice rooms ...................
(c)

Maternity Ward:

(i) Size of Ward (in square metres) ........................
(ii) Number of beds .......................
(iii) Number of toilets ...................

*Delete where inapplicable.

(iv)

Number of bathrooms .............
(v)

Number of sluice moms .................
(d)

Paediatric Ward:
(i)

Size of Ward (in square metres) ..................
(ii)

Number of beds .....................
(iii)

Number of bathrooms.....................
(vi)

Number of sluice rooms....................
7.

Clinic Support Services:

(a)

Pharmacy:

(i) Area of waiting room (in square metres) .........................
(ii) Number of dispensing windows ..................
(iii) Number of anti-biotic (safe cupboards) ................
(iv) Number of drug stores .......................
(b)

Laboratory:

(See attached minimum requirements).

(i) Reception area (in square metres) .............................
(ii) Seating capacity.................................
(iii) Size of work-room (in square metres).......................
(iv) Equipment (Attach a separate signed list of equipment and reagents/ chemicals inspected).
(c) X-Ray Unit:

(See attached minimum requirements)

(i) Size of reception area (in square metres) .........................
(ii) Seating capacity ..........................
(iii) Number of screening rooms .........................................
(iv) Standard of radiation protection ...............................

Adequate/Not Adequate*.

(v)

Equipment (Attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).

d) Operating Theatre:

(i) Minor theatre equipment (Attach a separate signed list of equipment inspected)
(ii) Major theatre (indicate by a tick or cross in the box next to the item to show whether available or not available).

Induction room ☐

Operating room ☐

Recovery room ☐

Lighting ...................... Adequate/Not Adequate*

Equipment ............. (attach separate signed list of equipment inspected).
8.

Other Supporting Services:

(a)

Kitchen:

(i) Cooking facility (specify) .......................
(ii) Non-perishable store ................... Available/Not Available*
(iii) Perishable store ..................... Available/Not Available*
(b)

Laundry type (specify) ..........................
*Delete where inapplicable.
(c)

Mortuary:

(i) Available/Not Available*
(ii) Refrigerated/Not refrigerated*
(iii) Appropriately located/Not appropriately located*

If not appopriately located state why ..............

......................................

(iv)

Body capacity .........................
(v)

Adequate Privacy/Not Adequate Privacy* ...........
(vi)

Number of ambulances ......................
(vii)

Other facility (specify and use extra space if necessary) .......
(To be completed by the Medical Officer of Health in triplicate)
1.

Give full names and designations of members of the D.H.M.T. who participated in the inspection of the institution.

Name

Designation

(i) ....................... ........................
(ii) ....................... ........................
(iii) ....................... ........................
(iv) ....................... ........................
(v) ....................... ........................
(vi) ....................... ........................
(vii) ....................... ........................
(viii) ....................... ........................
(ix) ....................... ........................
(x) ....................... ........................
2.

Certificate by M.O.H.

I, Dr. ............................................................

State full names in Block Letters)

being the Medical Officer of Health in-charge ................ District, do hereby certify that the inspection of ......................... was conducted by the District Health Management Team of ............... on the .......... day of ......, 20....... under my personal supervision.

I further certify that the inspection was witnessed by Dr./Mr./Mrs./Miss

...........................................................................

being the Owner/Director/Applicant* and that ............................ the said institution does/does not* meet the minimum requirements for Registration/Licensing purposes.

Dated this ...................... day of ..............., 20 ..........

Signature ............................................

(Medical Officer of Health)

*Delete where inapplicable.

Name of Station .......................................

Address ...............................................

.........................................................

Telephone Number ............................

*Delete where inapplicable.
PART VII
(To be completed by the Applicant/Director/Owner of the institution in triplicate)

I. Dr./Mr/Mrs./Miss* ..........................................

(Full Names in Block Letters)

hereby certify that all information given by me in this application form is true and correct and tht I personally witnessed the inspection which was conducted by the Medical Officer of Health on the .... day of ......, 20...........

Signature .................................................

Names in Full ............................................

APPLICANT TO NOTE

This form MUST be returned to the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board within a period not exceeding thrre months from the date of issue. Applications which are not returned within the stipulated period shall be time barred.

PART VIII

(For the purposes of vetting applications and enforcement of Laws, Regulations and Decisions of the I.R.C. and the Board)

(a)

Name of institution acceptable to the IRC. .......................
(b)

Type of institution .................................................
(c)

Give Names, Types, Locations and Registration Numbers of other institutions operated by the Applicant/Director or affiliated to the institution named in this application.

(i) ......................................................
(ii) .......................................................
(iii) ......................................................
(iv) ........................................................
(v) ........................................................ ...........................................................
(Use extra space if necessary)

*Delete where inapplicable

(d)

Give full particulars of criminal court proceedings for violations of any of the following Ministry of Health laws by any of the Institutions named in paragraph (c) in this application (Cap. 253, Cap. 260, Cap. 244, Cap. 245, Cap. 254, and Cap. 242 (Quote court case references in each case for the past three years proceeding the date of this application).

.........................................................................................

(Use extra space if necessary)
(e)

Give names of institutions, their location and registration numbers from among those named in paragraph (c) in this application which have defaulted in licence fees payment during the past three years. State each year of default and penalty imposed and whether or not/penalty has been paid and fees recovered:

...........................................................
(f)

Give names of any of the institutions named at paragraph (c) in this application which the Board has authorized closure during the past three years (quote minutes references of the I.R.C. and state the institutions' registration number and place of location).

................................................................................

(Use extra space if necessary)
(g)

F.R.L. Serial No. and date of this application ...................
(h)

Licence Fees Category (Quote I.R.C. minutes reference).............
(i)

F.R.L. Receipt No. and Date .........................................
(j)

Date application returned to applicant ..............................
(k)

Date application re-submitted by applicant .......................
(l)

Registration fees Receipt No. and Date ....................
CERTIFICATE BY AN OFFICER AUTHORIZED FOR THE PURPOSES OF PART VII OF THIS APPLICATION
(This certificate must be countersigned by the Registrar)

I, certify that the institution for which this application is made and its Owner/Director/Applicant or its Administrator has/has not been* subject to the criminal proceedings in violation of any of the laws named in Paragraph (d) in this application and that all information given under Part VIII of this application is correct and true.

Dated this ............ day of ..........., 20 ............

................................................................

Authorized Officer Registrar, M.P. and D.B../D.M.S.

*Delete where inapplicable.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

1. Institution

Registration

Committee

Recommendation

..........................

.......................

....................................

.....................

.............................

.............................

............................

...........................

..........................

....................

............................

.........................

......................

......................

...............................

.......................

Dated this ........... day of ............, 20 ...........

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE REGISTRAR BY THE BOARD

......................................................................................

................................................................................

Dated this ............ day of ........., 20 .........

........................................................

Chairperson

Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

______________________________

FORM X

(r. 4(3))

[L.N. 26/2000, r. 2, L.N. 161/2015.]

Serial No......................

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
CERTIFICATE OF REGISTRATION AS A PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTION
1.

Name of Institution .....................................

P. O. Box .............................................
2.

Type ............................................................

has been registered as a Private Medical Institution in accordance with rule 4 (3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Medical Institutions) Rules.

Date ...........................

SEAL OF THE BOARD

(r. 5(1))

...........................CHAIRMAN M.P. & D. BOARD

.............................REGISTRAR M.P. & BOARD/DMS
(a)

It shall be the duty of the holder of this certificate to inform the Registrar within fourteen (14) days of any change in the registered address in accordance with rule 5 of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Medical Institutions) Rules.
______________________________

FORM XI

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION FOR PRE-REGISTRATION EXAMINATION
1.

Surname ................................ Other Names ........................
2.

Date of Birth ......................... Nationality ......................
3.

Address ................... Code ............... Town .................. Tel ....................

Email ............................. Mobile ..............................
4.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (give name of medical school and date qualified — if degree not in English, provide official translation).

...............................................................
5.

Particulars of Experience (e.g. posts held, type of practice in which the applicant has been engaged, countries in which the applicant has practiced:

6.

Testimonials Covering the Period(s) of Experience

........................................
7.

Have any arrangements been made regarding employment? (if so, give details) ..................

Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Coloured passport size photograph;

(iii) Certified copies of professional certificates;

(iv) Evidence of appropriate linguistic skills in English and/or Kiswahili for non-Kenyans;

(v) Academic transcripts or evidence of internship;

(vi) Curriculum Vitae;

(vii) Must be attached at a training institution approved by the Board for a period of four (4) months;

(viii) Evidence of completion of internship or registration from a Medical Council;

(ix) Evidence of employment/job offer in a recognized institution;

(x) Letter from Commission for Higher Education (CHE) confirming recognition of the medical/dental school (if foreign trained);

(xi) Qualification (Form IV or VI certificates);

(xii) Application fee KSh. 5,000.00;

(xiii) Examination/evaluation of qualification papers - Fees KSh. 50,000.00.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

Signature of applicant

................................. Date ..............................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

PREPARED BY: -Name: .............Designation ......................Signature ........................ Date .............CHECKED BY:-Name: .................. Designation ................Signature ........................ Date .............

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ................................................Designation ...................................Signature .........................................Date ...............................................
______________________________

___________________________

FORM XII

(r. 5(3))

Serial No............

[ L.N. 26/2000]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
ANNUAL FEES ASSESSMENT FORM
PART A
(to be completed in triplicate)
1.

Name of Institution .................................................
2.

Registration Number and Date ....................................
3.

Physical Location ........................................
4.

Name and Address of Applicant for Licence ..................................
5.

Fees Category for Year ...................

(I)

☐
(II)

☐
(III)

☐
(IV)

☐
(V)

☐

(tick relevant box)

6.

Fees Rates Applicable to Instution ..........................

Licence fees (amount in words) ........................................

.......................................................................
PART B
(to be completed by M.O.H. in triplicate)
CERTIFICATE BY MEDICAL OFFICER OF HEALTH

I, Dr. (Full Names in Block Letters) ...............................

Being the Medical Officer of Health in-Charge ......................

.................................................................

District of ..........................................

Province do hereby certify that the institution named in this application form was last inspected on ................. day of .............., 20 ......... and in my opinion the current condition of its premises requires/does not *require fresh inspection.

(*delete where inapplicable)

Dated this ............... day of ............, 20.........

OFFICIAL SEAL

..................................Medical Officer Of Health

STATION............

ADDRESS...............

TELEPHONE..........
(a)

Plot No. .......................................
(b)

Town/Market* ..................................
(c)

Street/Road* ...................................
(d)

Location ......................................
(e)

Division ......................................
(f)

District ..........................................
(g)

Province ..........................................
7.

Date of last inspection of the Institution by the Ministry of Health

............................................................................................
*Delete where inapplicable.
PART C
(to be completed by the applicant in triplicate)
CERTIFICATE BY THE APPLICANT

I. Dr./Mr./Mrs./Miss (Full Names in Block Letters)................

....................................

of P.O. Box ...............................

being the Administrator/Owner/Director* (Specify other) .............

.......................................................................

of (give full names of the institution) ..................................

..........................................................................

do hereby certify that the information given by me in this application is true and correct.

Dated this ............ day of ..............., 20 ........

........................................Applicant

PART D
(FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY)
(a)

Acceptable name of institution and type ...............

...................... ...............................
(b)

FRL Serial Number and Date ..................................................
(c)

Registration Certificate Number and Date .................................
(d)

Licence Fees Assessment Number and Date .........................
(e)

Category of Licensing ...............................................
(f)

Registration Fees Receipt Number and Date .............................
(g)

Date application sent to IRC/Board ..........................................
(h)

Remarks ................................................................

I certify that I have personally checked the information above and found it correct and that all procedures and documentation pertaining to this application have been complied with.

Dated this ............... day of ............, 20 ..........

.....................Registrar M.P. & D.B/Director of Medical Services

___________________

FORM XIII

(r. 5(4))

Serial No............

[L.N. 26/2000, r. 2.]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
LICENCE TO OPERATE A PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTION

LICENCE NO...............
1.

Name of Institution ........................................

(Full Names in Block Letters)

of P. O. Box ................................

(full address) is hereby licensed to operate a Private Medical Institution in accordance with the provisions of rule 5 (4) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Medical Institutions) Rules.
2.

This licence entitles the Private Medical Institution to operate as ..................................
3.

Authorized Premises for the Institution ...................................
4.

Maximum Number of Patients ...................................
5.

This Licence shall expire on the last day of ............, 20..........
6.

No change of premises is permitted without the authority of the Board.

Dated this ............. day of .............., 20........

...................Registrar

MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD/DIRECTOR OF MEDICAL SERVICES
CONDITIONS OF LICENCE

This licence issued on condition that minimum requirements set by the Board for operation of the Private Medical Institutions are adhered to at all times.

_______________________

FORM XIV

[ L.N. 75/2012, r. 3]

CHECK LIST FOR SINGULAR/JOINT INSPECTIONS FOR PRIVATE OUTPATIENT MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS BY HEALTH REGULATORY BODIES IN THE MINISTRIESRESPONSIBLE FOR HEALTH

MEDICAL/DENTAL CLINIC/LABORATORY/PHARMACY/RADIOLOGY/X-RAY UNIT/MORTUARY

Date:

Basic information

I.

Name facility

2.

Address

(a) Physical

Building

County

Ward rrown/ Street

LR No.

Tel No./Mobile

Email

(b) Postal

Code

3.(a)

Proprietor

Name:

Profession:

Pin No:

(b)

Registeredowner

(a) Name

(b) Licence Certificate No.

Date of issue

Expiry date

4.

Officer in charge

(a) Qualification

(b) Registration No.

Practice licence number

5.

Name of MedicalPersonnel

Cadre

Licence Number

Date of issue

Expiry date

6.

Services offered

7.

Security ofpremises (external security & security features)(permanentperimeter fence/fire assembly points/security guard)

8.

General cleaniliness of premises

Total

10

9.

A. Medical/Dental Clinic Max score

Awarded

Comments

1. Consultation - Examination rooms

1.

Examination Equipment

4

2.

Resuscitation tray

3

3.

Infection prevention &control

3

4.

Policy, guidelines & SOPs

3

5.

Medical records

4

6.

Data Security

4

7.

HMIS/EMR

4

8.

Reports

3

9.

Ventilation

2

10.

Licences

10

Total

40

B. Pharmacy/ Chemist

Max score

Awarded

l.

Security for medications (e.g. Secure cupboards for restricted drugs, only accessible by authorizedpersons & disposal of expired drugs)

10

2.

Storage of drugs/display /labelling/ packaging conditions

7

3.

Record-keeping and documentation (Prescriptions written & received andfiled/medication errors documented and reported)

10

4.

Reference materials, Policy and SOPs as per national guidelines

3

5.

Licences

10

Total

40

C. Laboratory

Max score

Awarded

Comments

1.

Class of the licence (A-E)

4

2.

Policies, guidelines and SOPs (Including reporting procedures, handling/labelling/storage/disposal of specimens and safety program)

3

3.

Equipment management program (manuals, inventory, service contract, calibration)

6

4.

Record-keeping & Quality control of tests (EQA, IQA, control of analytical errors)

10

5.

Infection prevention and control

2

6.

Registration, storage of equipment and reagents (is there a temperature recording system)

5

7.

Licences

10

Total

40

D. Radiology/Imaging services

Max score

Awarded

Comments

1.

Current annual premise & device licence

4

2.

Policies and SOPS (Code of practice including reporting, testing, calibrating, monitoring and control)

3

3.

Quality assurance program (safety of the patient, worker, environment, security, filmstorage, quality and documentation)

10

4.

Personal radiation monitoring (Badges, dose reports)

10

5.

Radioactivewaste management programs

3

Total

30

E. Nutrition

1.

Basic Nutritionequipment and materials (weighing Stadiometer, MUAC, BP machine Blood sugar machinereferrence charts)

10

2.

SOPs (Nutritionassessment, Nutrition suppliments)

3

3.

Nutrition careprocess, nutrition assessment, Diagnosis, intervention, M&E)

7

4.

Record keepingand documentation

10

5.

Licences

10

Total

40

10.

Findings and Recommendations

11.

REGISTERED OWNER/ OFFICER IN - CHARGE

Name:................... Designation:................................ Email...................Tel No................................ Date................................. Signature ...................................

INSPECTION TEAM

Name:

Board/Council/MOH

Designation

Sign

Date

1.

2.

Name:

Board/Council/MOH

Designation

Sign

Date

3.

4.

5.

6.

FORM XV

CHECK LIST FOR SINGULAR/JOINT INSPECTIONS FOR PRIVATE INPATIENT MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS BY HEALTH REGULATORY BODIES IN THE MINISTRIES RESPONSIBLE FOR HEALTH

Basic information

1.

Name facility

N/A

2.

Category of Facility

Level

NA (to be graded atthe time of registration

3.

Proprietor owner

N/A

(a) Organization

Private ( ), Faith based ( ),GOK ( ), Community based ( ).

N/A

(b) Proprietor'sname

N/A

Current LicenceNo.

(III) Expiry date of the current licence

5

Not matching

1

matching

5

4.

Name of Officer in charge.

Current practicing licence No.

N/A

N/A

N/A

5.

Address

Physical

County

N/A

Building, Plot No.

Town, Street

Tel No.

Email

N/A

Postal

BoxNo. Code:

N/A

6.

Medical Personnel

N/A (to be graded atthe time of registration.

Name ofMedical Personnel

Cadre

Licence Number

Date of issue

Expiry date

Total numberof staff

7.

Servicesoffered

Outpatient Services YIN

MCH ( ) & HCT ( )

N/A

InpatientServices

YES/NO //(tick/circle)//

Numberof beds

Numberof cots

N/A

8.

Health Facility Infrastructure

Score

A. Building

Yes

No

N/A

1.

Building suitable for scope of work

2.

Signage for directions is in place and clear

B. Environmental - Infection Prevention

Yes

No

N/A

Comments

1.

Adequate waste management & disposal (according to guidelines )

2.

Personal protective equipment available (Gloves, gowns or dust coats, and safety boots for infection prevention)

C. Utilities

Yes

No

N/A

Comments

1.

Safe,clean running water available - Tap orcontainer). Sufficient water storage available

2.

Stable electrical power supply

Key: Ranking of scoresLevel 0: the desired activity is absent, or there is mostly ad hoc activity related to risk reductionLevel 1: the structure of more uniform risk-reduction activity begins to emergeLevel 2: the processes are in place for consistent and effective risk-reduction activitiesLevel 3: there are data to confirm successful risk-reduction strategies and continue improvement

9. Management & Recording

Scoring key

A. Generalmanagement

1

2

3

4

5

Comments

1.

Strategic plan with Vision/Mission/Values/Objectives identified

1. Not available2. Available but notin use3. In use, not known to all4. In use, not displayed5. Displayed, known and fully used

2.

Organization chart available

1. Approved by management2. Approved by board

3. Approved by an accredited body

3.

Service charter displayed

1. Not Displayed 2. Displayed 3. Regular performance review

4.

List of all staff working, including position and qualifications

//1. No list2. List available3. List with qualifications available4. List with qualifications and Job description5. Staff developmentplan available//

B. Quality Management

Comments

1.

Certifications/ accreditations

No scoring (Yes or No)

2.

Performance indicators monitored

//1. Performanceindicators (PI) not collected2. Pls collectedroutinely3. Pls analyzed4. There's feedback5. External publications//

3.

Patients charter

//1. Notavailable//2. Available 3. Displayed

4.

Feedback mechanism in place

//1. No policy2. Policy available3. Collection Mechanism available4. Regular analysis of complaints & compliments5. Evidence of action//

C. Medical Records & Information Systems

Comments

1.

2.

Medical records for each patient (files - manual/ electronic)

//1. No medical records2. Separate medicalrecord for each patient3. All patients are triaged//

//4. Comprehensivemedical notes5. Notes are legible and signed//

3.

Approved register is kept of all patients (An outpatient and inpatient register)

//1. Noregisters2. Old registers3. Current registers available4. Registers correctlyused//

4.

Records are kept in a secure place

//1. No restrictedaccess to files2. There's restricted access to files3. Files kept in lockable cabinets and onlyauthorised personscan access//

5.

Contributes to external databases and reports, periodically (Linkage to national HMIS)

//1. No routine reports2. Routine reports available butnot reported3. Routine reports submitted irregularly4. Routine reportssubmitted regularly//

D. Equipment Management

Comments

1.

Preventive maintenance plan for equipment

//1. No preventive plan 2. Service contract available3. Equipment checked on schedule and results documented4. Due date for next maintenance documented//

2.

Calibration

//1. Machines not calibrated2. No contract for calibration3. Calibration not regular but contract available4. Calibration regular with results available//

10.

Patient Services

Scoring system

Comments

A. Consultation

1.

Consultation - Examination rooms

1. Examination coach2. The above withscreen3. The abovewith steps4. The above withmackintosh5. All theabove with bed sheet

2.

Sink/wash basin

1. Sink available2. The above withSink withoutrunning water3. The above withSink with running water from the tap4. The above with Sink with all ofthe above with soap5. All the abovewith Sink withrunning waterand drier

3.

Examination Equipment

• thermometer• stethoscope• BP machine• weighing machine• Diagnostic kit

B. Emergency/Resuscitation room

1.

Triage

1. triage area2. Nurse not trained in triage3. Nurse trained intriage4. SoPs of triageavailable5. Proper coding of client

2.

Emergency tray

• Incompleteemergency tray• Presenceof emergency tray with all requirements

• The racks clearly labelled• All the above at designated sites• All the above and up to date list of all requirements

3.

Equipment

• Ambu bag/masks• Suction machine• Oxygen cylinder and flowmeter• Endotracheal tubes• All the above with an ideal adjustable bed

C. Sterilization Process

1.

Central Supply Unit

1. Separation areas for cleaning2. Decontamination3. Sterilization Process - SoPs available4. Storage of sterile supplies5. All the above labelled and stored in designated area

2.

Autoclave Machine

• Autoclave manual available• Autoclave electric available• SoPs available• Maintenance plan• Digitalized autoclave

D. Labour Ward

1.

Procedures for obstetric emergencies

1. Procedure for obstructed labourand foetal distress

2. Procedure for Eclampsia3. Procedure for APH/PPH/HELLP4. Availability of resuscitaire5. Resuscitaire with oxygen, the suction machine, ambubags

2.

Equipments

• Delivery bed available• Sterile delivery set• Vacuum extractor• Suction machine• Maintenance plan

3.

Monitoring of Labour

• Partograph chart available• Contraction properly charted• Cervical dilatation• Colour coding• TPR/BP

4.

Access to theatre

1. Ambulance available2. General theatre available (not close to L/W)3. General theatre available (close to L/W)4. More than one theatre5. L/W fully equippedtheatre

5.

Incubator

1. Presence of incubator2. Functional incubator3. Proper temperatureregulation

4. Oxygen connection15. Maintenanceplan

6.

Hand washing facility

1. Sink2. Sink without running water3. Sink withrunning water from the tap4. Sink with all of the above with soap5. Sink with running water and drier

7.

Sluice room

1. Presence ofsluice room2. Sluicing sink3. Availability of running water4. Decontamination backets available5. SoPs

8.

Waste management

1. Available Waste bins2. coded bins with improper lining3. bins with proper coded lining4. Good segregation practice5. All of the above with SoPs

9.

State of floor

1. Cement floor2. Cement floor with drainage3. Ceramic tile floor with drainage4. Tarazo with good drainage5. A good cleaning chart

10.

Nursing Personnel

1. nurses available2. midwives available

3. midwives available but not the right ratio 1:34. Midwives available ratio of 1:25. Midwives available ratio 1:1

11.

Oxygen source

1. Oxygen cylinders available2. External oxygen piped to IJW3. Oxygen plantSOPS4. Maintenance plan

E. Clinical Wards

l.

Oversight of patients

1. Admission procedures2. Categorization3. Patients uniform4. Clinical ward round5. Handing over/ discharge reports

2.

Patient records

1. Availability2. Non -Coded filing system3. Coded filing system4. Designated andsecure storage area E-filing

3.

Monitoring equipment

1. Thermometer2. Stethoscope3. BP machine4. Weighing machine5. Diagnostic kit

4.

Resuscitation tray

1. Presence of an emergency tray2. Presence of emergency tray with the necessary contents

13. The racks clearlylabelled- All the above at designated sites- All the above plus list of updating the contents

F. Pharmacy

SCORE

COMMENTS

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

General conditions of premises

Adequate general condition of premises (Hygiene, sanitation, ventilation, state of repair, running water, light, adequate space, displayof drugs)

2.

Medications

Conditions of medications adequate(e.g. security, display, labelling, expiry dates)

3.

Record Keeping/ Documentation

Prescriptions received and recorded

G. Medical/Dental Laboratory

1.

Licensin 2

Licensed for services per class (C,D,E)

2.

SOPs

Standard Operating Procedures & guidelines available (according to Class: Including reporting procedures, handling/ labelling/ storage / disposal of specimens and safety program)

3.

Quality assurance

Quality control practiced (Equipment/reagent registered, validated, calibrated and quality control of tests, well maintained equipment, storage)

4.

Infection prevention and control

Infection prevention and control practices observed (waste management and sharps disposal, Personal protective equipment)

H. Radiology and ImagingServices

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Licenses

Premises & devices

2.

Safety and storage

Safety of personnel, environmentand patient adequate, quality assurance and equipment management (personalsafety and control area safety, waste management)

3

Documentation

Facility Code of Practice present (including reporting, testing, calibrating, monitoring and control, standard operating procedures)

1. Food Nutrition and Dietetics

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1

Nutrition assessment and care plan in place for the patients

2

Availability of supplementary, therapeutic & parental feeds

3

Procurement, delivery, inspection & menu and service of food according to laid protocols/procedures

4

Food & personnel hygiene and waste disposal Registered Nutritionist &Medically examined kitchen staff.

J. Mortuary/ funeral parlour

Scoring

Comments

0

I

2

3

4

5

1.

SOP for receiving, identification,storage and release of bodies including solid disposal

2.

Protective gear & equipment

3.

Overall environment

K. Occupational Therapy

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Trained personnel

2.

Basic equipment

3.

room

L. Physiotherapy

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Trained personnel

2.

Basic equipment

3.

Workshop

4.

SOP

5.

Records

M. Orthopaedic technology

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Trained personnel

2.

Room

3.

Specialized equipment/materials

4.

SOPs

5.

Records

N. Orthopaedic plaster and trauma

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Trained personnel

2.

Room

3.

Specialized equipment/materials

4.

SOPs

5.

records

O. Medical and Dental Services

Scoring

Comments

0

1

2

3

4

5

1.

Trained personnel

2.

Basic Equipments

3.

SOPs

4.

Rooms

11.

Findings and Recommendations

12.

REGISTERED OWNER/ OFFICER IN-CHARGE

Name:........................................Designation: ..............................Email.................Tel No.:.....................................Date.................................Sign:....................................

INSPECTION TEAM

Name:

Board/Council/MOH

Designation

Sign

Date

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

__________

FORM XVI

(r. 2(c))

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR PEER REVIEW
1.

Surname .......................... Other Names ...........................
2.

Date of Birth ............................... Nationality .......................
3.

Address .............. Code ................. Town ................ Tel/Mobile ...........

Email ...........................................
4.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (give name of medical school and date qualified — if degree not in English, provide official translation)

...................................................
5.

Particulars of Experience (e.g. posts held, type of practice in which the applicant has been engaged, countries in which the applicant has practiced)

.................................................
6.

Testimonials Covering the Period(s) of

Experience ..................................................
7.

Have any arrangements been made regarding employment? (if so, give details) ............

Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Coloured passport size photograph;

(iii) Certified copies of professional certificates and academic transcripts;

(iv) Copy of current CV;

(v) Evidence of postgraduate qualification(s);

(vi) Certificate of status from current regulatory authority;

(vii) Specialist Recognition (if any) from current medical Board;

(viii) Application fees of Kshs. 5,000.00;

(ix) Peer Review/evaluation fees of Kshs. 95,000.00.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch; SWIFT CODE: KCBLKENX, BANK CODE: 01175, BANK: KCB

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and I have fulfilled all the above requirements.

Signature of applicant .................... Date ..............

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

The process takes a maximum of Thirty (30) days

PREPAREDName: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:....................... Designation ................Signature ......... Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

FORM XVII
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
RENEWAL FORM FOR PRIVATE PRACTICE LICENCE 20.....

(All fields are mandatory)

1.

Surname ....................... Other Names ..................... Reg. No .............
2.

Date of Birth ...........................
3.

Address .................. Code ............. Town ............ Mobile No .....................

Email......................................
4.

Employer .......................................
5.

Name of authorized premises .................. County ............. Sub county .............
6.

Previous Private Practice Licence Number ................................
7.

Notification for any changes of name, address and/or authorized premises ..............

...................................
8.

Specialist/General practice. If specialized please specify the discipline ....................

Sub Specialty .............................
9.

Letter of no objection from employer/Schedule of duties should be provided for Part-time practice.
10.

All applications together with payments should be received by 30th September, 20 .......
11.

Late payment shall attract 50% penalty.

Requirements:

(i) Fees:

Kenyans-

A fee of Shs.15,000 is payable annually for Specialist Practice

A fee of Shs.10,000 is payable annually for General Practice

A fee of Shs.10,000 is payable annuallyfor Part-time Practice

Non-Kenyans-

A fee of Shs.40,000 is payable annually for Specialist Practice

A fee of Shs.30,000 is payable annually for General Practice

A fee of Shs.30,000 is payable annually for Part-time Practice

(ii) Copy of previous licence;
(iii) Acquire a minimum of 50 CPD points.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

Computer generated and stamped banking slip together with renewal form should be, within the first week, either emailed to or posted to the address below.

Signature of applicant .................. date .................

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge.

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

PREPARED:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................RECOMMENDED:Name:....................... Designation ................Signature ......... Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

Physical Address: MP&DB House- Woodlands Rd off Lenana Rd

Tel: +254 20-272 8752 1+254 20 272 4994 1+254 20 271 1478

Mobile: +254 720 771 4781+254 736 771478

Address: P.0 Box 44839-00100, NAIROBI-Kenya

Email: info@kenyamedicalboard.org

Website: www.medicalboard.co.ke

FORM XVIII
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR TEMPORARY LICENCE FOR FOREIGN DOCTORS
1.

Surname .............................. Other Names ............................
2.

Date of Birth .................................... Nationality ..................
3.

Address ................ Code .................. Town .................. Tel ...............

Email...........................................................
4.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (if not in English, provide official translation)

................................................
5.

Name of medical/dental school ......................... Dates qualified .....................
6.

Particulars of Experience (e.g. posts held, type of practice in which the applicant has been engaged, countries in which the applicant has practiced:

.......................................................
7.

Testimonials covering the period of experience

.......................................................
8.

Name of employer: ....................... address .................. Code .....................

Email.................................. Tel No ..................................
9.

Is this a New Application or a Renewal? ............................. If renewal, licence No .......................................

Mandatory Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Current coloured passport size photograph;

(iii) Certified copies of professional certificates and transcripts;

(iv) Certificate of Status;

(v) Introduction letter job offer from the institution;

(vi) Copy of registration certificate from respective Medical Board/Council;

(vii) Copy of current/last practice licence;

(viii) Copy of current CV;

(ix) Licence fee Kshs.20,000.00.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and I have met the above requirements.

Signature of applicant .................... Date .....................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

The process will take a maximum of two weeks

PREPARED BY:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:....................... Designation ................Signature ......... Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

______________

FORM XIX
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD
(The Medical Practitioners and Dentist Act, Cap. 253)
TEMPORARY LICENCE FOR FOREIGN DOCTORS

Dr. ...................................................

(full name)

of......................................................

(address)

Qualifications................................

Is hereby licensed by the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board to render Medical services at ......................................

(name of approved institution)

In accordance with the provisions of section 13 of the Act.

Dated the ............................ 20 ......................

....................RegistrarMedical Practitioners and Dentists Board

CONDITIONS OF LICENCE:

1.

This licence is valid for a period of 9 MONTHS from the date hereof.
2.

This licence is authorized to render medical or dental services as the case may be only at the institution mentioned in this licence.
3.

The licence is entitled to engage in training employment.
4.

This licence does not entitle you to engage in private practice.
5.

Signature of Holder ...........................

__________________

FORM XX
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATE OF STATUS
SECTION A: PERSONAL DETAILS
1.

Surname ......................... Other Names ..................... Reg. No ..............
2.

Date of Birth ....................... Nationality ............................
3.

Address ..................... Code ............... Town ......... Tel/Mobile ....................

Email.................................................
4.

Reasons for Certificate of status ...............................................................
5.

Intended county of stay/study/practice ......................... Institution ..................

Period..........................................
6.

If certificate is for travel, when are you expected back into the country .................
SECTION B: REFEREE

I, Dr./Prof. (Names in full) .............................

(indicate Full Names as they appear in the Register)

Reg. No ......................... of P.O. Box ...........................

Telephone (Mobile) ....................... Email ..............................

Being a practitioner of good standing, I do hereby declare that I have been and I am well acquainted with the said Dr ........................................................

Reg. No./Licence No .............................................................

For the past ....................... years; and further declare that during this time he/she:-

(a)

has been engaged in Medical/Dental practice;
(b)

has conducted himself/herself well socially and in a responsible manner;
(c)

character and conduct have been ............................................
(d)

reasons for certificate of status .......................................

Signed..................... Date ...........................

SECTION C: REQUIREMENTS
(i) A recommendation by a registered practitioner of good status (in section B above);
(ii) Attach copy of current retention certificate/private practice licence/temporary licence for foreign practitioner;
(iii) Evidence that the practitioner is not under any investigation by the Board;
(iv) Application fee of Kshs.20,000.00.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch; SWIFT CODE: KCBLKEAW, BANK CODE: 01175, BANK: KCB

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and that I have met all the requirements.

Signature of Applicant .................... Date .................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

The process takes a maximum of two (2) weeks.

PREPARED BY:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:....................... Designation ................Signature ......... Date .............................

RECOMMENDEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature ..............................Date ...............................

FORM XXI

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD
APPLICATION FOR ACCREDITATION AS A CPD PROVIDER
PLEASE READ THIS SECTION CAREFULLY BEFORE COMPLETING THE FORM
(a)

The application form must be completed by a duly authorized person;
(b)

Every application must be accompanied by:-

(i) an application fee of Ksh. 15,000.00 (non-refundable);
(ii) calendar of activities; and
(iii) names of two referees.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

PART A: ADMINISTRATIVE INFORMATION

1. Particularsof Applicant

(a) Name of institution;

(b) Permanent Address:

(c) Physical Address:

(d) City/Town:

(e) County:

(f) Postal Address:

(g) Postal Code:

(h) Plot No.:

(i) LR No.:

(j) Telephone No:

(k) Mobile No.:

(l) Email:

(m) Website:

(n) Fax:

2. Name of Contact Person:

Landline No.:

Mobile No.:

Email:

Any other additional information:
PART B: DECLARATION BY APPLICANT

I, the undersigned confirm that all the information in this form and accompanying documentation is correct and true to the best of my knowledge. I further agree to inform the MPDB, about any changes or modifications made to the information given in the document(s) submitted.

Name of Head of Institution/Department: ............................................

Signature: ..........................................................................

Name of CPD coordinator: ............................................................

Signature: .........................................................................

Date of Application: ...............................................................

Official Stamp:

PART C - FOR MPDB OFFICIAL USE ONLY

PREPARED BY:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:.......................Designation ................Signature .....................Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

FORM XXII

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD
CPD ANNUAL RETENTION FORM
PART I

Name of Provider ...................................

Telephone(landline) .................................

Address ............................ code ..........

Physical location .....................................

Website ..............................................

Name of Contact Person ................................

Position ...............................................

Telephone ............................................

Email ................................................

Name & Signature of applicant ..........................

Date ...................................................

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge.

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

PREPARED BY:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:.......................Designation ................Signature .....................Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

Physical Address: MP&DB House- Woodlands Rd off Lenana Rd

Tel: +254 20-272 8752 1+254 20 272 4994 1+254 20 271 1478

Mobile: +254 720 771478 1+254 736 771478

Address: P.0 Box 44889-00100, NAIROBI-Kenya

Email: medicalboard@kenyamedicalboard.org

ceo@kenyamedicalboard.org

Website: www.medicalboard.co.ke

PART II
1.

Part I provides information and guidelines for filling this form.
2.

Part II will contain details of the CPD accredited provider. A copy of the Boards certificate should be attached.
3.

Part III relates to the calendar of events. Applicants are expected to provide a detailed annual calendar of events in as much as possible the format indicated. The calendar of events should be received by the Board not later than 31st December of the preceding year.
4.

Part IV will contain information of the attendees. Providers are expected to keep a record of the attendees of each activity in the prescribed form. The list of attendees should be received by the Board not later than thirty days from the date on which the activity was held.
5.

A fee of Kshs 40,000/= to be paid per calendar year.
6.

An application for retention shall be deemed to be for the next calendar year and can only relate to future CPD activities to be conducted.
7.

CPD providers who intend to charge participants a fee shall indicate the same on the retention form and shall provide all relevant details of the same.
8.

CPD programs or activities must-

(a)

have significant intellectual and practical content and should emphasize ethical aspects of practice;
(b)

be related to or be relevant to the practice of medicine;
(c)

be of relevance and benefit to medical practitioners, dental practitioners or other health professionals, or designed specifically for registered medical institutions (whether government or private);
(d)

be designed with the primary objective of increasing the professional competence of the attendee; and
(e)

be approved by the Board.
9.

The Board's decision shall be final.

FORM XXIII
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR INTERNSHIP QUALIFYING EXAMINATION/FOR FOREIGN
TRAINED DOCTORS/EAST AFRICA COMMUNITY RECIPROCAL RECOGNITION
1.

Surname ....................... Other Names ...........................
2.

Date of Birth ...................... Nationality ......................
3.

Address .................. Code .............. Town ............... Tel ......................

Email .............................................
4.

Degree, Diploma or Licence held (give name of medical school and date qualified if degree not in English, provide official translation)

Requirements:

(i) Copy of ID/Passport;

(ii) Coloured pass port size photograph;

(iii) Certified copies of professional certificates;

(iv) Curriculum Vitae;

(v) Must be attached at a training institution approved by the Board for a period of four (4) Months;

(vi) Qualifications (Form IV or VI Certificates);

(vii) Evidence of appropriate linguistic skills in English andlor Kiswahili for non-Kenyans;

(viii) Evidence of registration ftom EAC Partner States Board's and councils (for those applying for reciprocal registration);

(ix) Letter from Commission for Higher Education (CHE) confirming recognition of the medical/dental school (if foreign trained);

(x) Application fee Kshs. 5,000.00;

(xi) Examination/Evaluation of qualification papers Kshs.30,000.00.

All payments should be made at any KCB Branch countrywide to Board's account No. 1103158643, Milimani Branch.

I hereby certify that the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge and I have fulfilled all the above requirements.

Signature ............................. Date .............................

FOR OFFICIAL USE:

PREPARED BY:Name: ........... Designation ..................Signature .................... Date ..................CHECKED BY:Name:.......................Designation ................Signature .....................Date .............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName ......................................Designation ...................................Signature .......................................Date ...............................

SECOND SCHEDULE

FEES PAYABLE UNDER THE ACT

[L.N. 349/1995, r. 2., L.N. 13/1997, r. 2., L.N. 26/2000, r. 2, L.N. 80/2005, r. 2, L.N. 135/2010, r. 2, L.N. 12/2012, r. 2, L.N. 161/2015, r. 2, L.N. 4/2017, r. 9, L.N. 255/2021, r. 2.]

Item

Fees(Shs.)

1.

Indexing of a medical/dental student

1,000

2.

MEDICAL/DENTAL PRACTITIONERS

(a) Permanent Registration of a Medical/Dental practitioner

8,000

(b) Retention of the name of a Medical/Dental practitioner in the Register

4,000

(c) Renewal of Private Practice Licence by Citizens of Kenya

(i) Full-time-general practice

10,000

(ii) Full-time-Specialist practice

15,000

(iii) Part-time-Specialist practice

10,000

(d) Renewal of Private Practice Licence by non-Citizen

(i) Full-time-general practice

30,000

(ii) Full-time-Specialist practice

40,000

(iii) Part-time-Specialist practice

30,000

(e) Temporary licence for foreign doctor

20,000

(f) Specialist recognition

20,000

(g) Exam fees

(i) Application

5,000

(ii) Internship qualifying exam

30,000

(iii) Assessment,for Registration exam

50,000

(iv) Peer review

95,000

(h) Processing additional qualifications

20,000

(i) Certificate of status

20,000

Item

Fees (KSh.)

Institution Fees

(a) Registration of institution

Level 1

Community Health Unit

Level 2

(i) Health Clinic

10,000

(ii) Dental Community Clinic

10,000

(iii) Dispensary

5,000

(iv) Eye Clinic

10,000

(v) Home-based Care Service

10,000

(vi) Funeral Home (stand-alone)

15,000

Level 3A

Comprehensive Health Centre

15,000

Level 3B

(i) General Practice Clinic

10,000

(ii) General Dental Practice Clinic

10,000

(iii) Home-based Care Service

10,000

Level 3C

General Medical Centre

15,000

Level 4A

Primary Care Hospital

30,000

Level 4B

(i) Specialist Medical or Dental Clinic

15,000

(ii) Specialist Home-based Care Service or Hospice

15,000

(iii) Specialist Eye Clinic

15,000

Level 5A

Comprehensive Secondary Referral Hospital

30,000

Level 5B

Secondary Referral Hospital

30,000

Level 5C

Super-Specialised Medical or Dental Centre

30,000

Level 6A

National Referral and Teaching Hospital and Specialised Hospital

30,000

Level 6B

Specialised Hospital

30,000

(b) Renewal of institution annual licence

Level 1

Community Health Unit

Level 2

(i) Health Clinic

115,000

(ii) Dental Community Clinic

15,000

(iii) Dispensary

5,000

(iv) Eye Clinic

10,000

(v) Home-based Care Service

15,000

(vi) Funeral Home (Stand-alone)

20,000

Level 3A

Comprehensive Health Centre

20,000

Level 3B

(i) General Practice Clinic

15,000

(ii) General Dental Practice Clinic

15,000

(iii) Home-based Care Service

10,000

Level 3C

General Medical Centre

20,000

Level 4A

Primary Care Hospital

80,000

Level 4B

(i) Specialist medical or Dental Clinic

20,000

(ii) Specialist Home-based care Service or Hospice

20,000

(iii) Specialist Eye Clinic

20,000

Level 5A

Comprehensive Secondary Referral Hospital

200,000

Level 5B

Secondary Referral Hospital

90,000

Level 5C

Super-Specialised Medical or Dental Centre

90,000

Level 6A

National Referral and Teaching Hospital and Specialised Hospital

300,000

Level 6B

Specialised Hospital

300,000
FEES PAYABLE UNDER THE PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS RULES

Category of facility

Definition

Application fees

Registration fees

Licence fees

(a)

Dispensary

A health facility devoted to treating outpatients which is not intended to be used for more than twelve hours. Licensed to a faith based organization such as a church, a mosque, etc.

1,000

5,000

5,000

(b)

Medical clinic

A private practice health facility devoted to treating outpatients which is not intended to be used for more than twelve hours.

1,000

5,000

10,000

(c)

Eye clinic

An outpatient facility run by an ophthalmologist that exclusively offers eye services.

1,000

5,000

10,000

(d)

Eye hospital

A facility that exclusively offers eye services and has outpatient facilities; admission beds; a theatre and a cataract surgeon or ophthalmologist.

1,000

10,000

30,000

(e)

Health centre

A facility which is managed by a faith based organization, community or registered organization such as a school, a company, a church or a mosque; comprised of consulting rooms, offices, treatment rooms, laboratory and minor theatre; providing health care services which includes and limited to providing basic health services minus specialized services such as x-ray, theatre etc. Services provided include; curative, inpatient, maternity, referral, ANC/FP/immunization and laboratory.

1,000

5,000

10,000

(f)

Medical centre

A consortium of facilities and practitioners offering different services in one location.

1,000

5,000

10,000

(g)

Nursing home

A residential facility for persons with chronic illness which has a theatre and a mortuary.

1,000

10,000

20,000

(h)

Maternity home

A facility for the reception of pregnant women or women immediately after childbirth and for ante natal services.

1,000

10,000

20,000

(i)

Funeral home (stand alone)

A facility where dead bodies are stored and undergo autopsy before cremation or burial. It may provide additional services including-sale of coffins; cremation; burial and transportation, etc.

1,000

10,000

20,000

(j)

Mission hospital level 3

An establishment managed by a faith based organization which has fifty to one hundred inpatient beds; an operating theatre; a mortuary;

1,000

5,000

10,000

(k)

Mission hospital level 4

An establishment managed by a faith based organization which has over one hundred inpatient beds; an operating theatre; a mortuary; a radiology unit with x-ray and resident medical practitioners or dentists.

1,000

10,000

20,000

(l)

Hospital level4

An institution which has- fifty to one hundred inpatient beds; an operating theatre; a mortuary; a radiology unit with x-ray and resident medical practitioners or dentists.

1,000

20,000

50,000

(m)

Hospital level 5

An institution which has one hundred to one hundred and fifty inpatient beds; an operating theatre; a mortuary; an intensive care unit; a radiology unit with x-ray and resident medical practitioners or dentists.

1,000

30,000

80,000

(n)

Hospital level 6

An institution which has over one hundred and fifty inpatient beds; an operating theatre; a mortuary; an intensive care unit; a radiology unit with x-ray and resident medical practitioners or dentists.

1,000

30,000

100,000

(o)

Inspection and accreditation of a medical or dental school.

An institution which intends to train medical practitioners and dental practitioners.

15,000

50,000

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS) (PROCEDURE) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS

PART I

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation

PART II – PROCEEDINGS RELATING TO CONVICTION AND INFAMOUS CONDUCT IN A PROFESSIONAL RESPECT

3.

Establishment of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee
4.

Functions of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee
4A.

Professional Conduct Committee
5.

Submission of complaint or information
6.

Procedure in cases relating to conviction
7.

Procedure in cases relating to conduct
8.

[Deleted by L.N. 21/2012, r. 6(a).]

9.

[Deleted by L.N. 21/2012, r. 6(a)]

10.

Inquiries into charges against two or more practitioners

PART IIA

10A.

Application
10B.

Powers of the Committee
10C.

Non-response by respondent
10D.

Forms of proceedings
10E.

Language of proceedings
10F.

Information
10G.

Directions and pre-hearing orders
10H.

Non-appearance by respondent
10I.

Failure to comply with directions
10J.

Varying or setting aside of directions
10K.

Summons and orders
10L.

Exclusion of persons disrupting proceedings
10M.

Failure of Parties to attend hearing
10N.

Procedure at hearing
10O.

Quorum
10P.

Power to determine application without hearing
10Q.

Consolidation of proceedings
10R.

Amendment of pleadings
10S.

Extension of time
10T.

Demonstration and display facilities
10U.

Opportunity to be heard or cross-examine
10V.

Adjournment of proceedings
10W.

Judicial notice
10X.

Representation
10Y.

Decisions of the Committee
10Z.

Reasons for Decisions

PART III – PROCEEDINGS RELATING TO APPLICATIONS FOR RESTORATION

11.

Application for resoration of name on register

PART IV – GENERAL

12.

Adjournment of proceedings
13.

Proceedings to be in camera
14.

Summons at proceedings
15.

Notes taken at proceedings
16.

Venue of meetings
17.

Service of documents
18.

Evidence

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE —

FORMS

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS) (PROCEDURE) RULES
PART I
1.
Citation

These Rules may cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Disciplinary Proceedings) (Procedure) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Chairperson" means the chairperson of the Board;

"case relating to conviction" means any case where it is alleged that a medical practitioner or dentist has been convicted of an offence under this Act or under the Penal Code (Cap. 63);

"charge" means a charge or charges specified in a notice of inquiry;

"complainant" means a body or person that makes a complaint to the Board;

"Board's advocate" means an advocate appointed by the Board to assist in conducting an inquiry under these Rules;

"infamous or disgraceful conduct in a professional respect" means serious misconduct judged according to the rules, written or unwritten, which govern the medical and dental professions;

"inquiry" means a disciplinary inquiry held by the Board sitting as a tribunal into the conduct of a medical practitioner or dentist;

"notice of inquiry" means a written and signed notice from the Board which is sent to a medical or dental practitioner, specifying, in the form of a charge or charges, matters upon which the inquiry is to be held, and stating the date, time and place where the inquiry is to be held.
PART II – PROCEEDINGS RELATING TO CONVICTION AND INFAMOUS CONDUCT IN A PROFESSIONAL RESPECT
3.
Establishment of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee
(1)

There is hereby established a committee to be known as the Preliminary Inquiry Committee which shall consist of seven members elected from among the members of the Board.
(2)

The Director of Medical Services or, in his absence, a Deputy Director of Medical Services who is a member of the Board shall be the chairperson of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee;
(3)

The chairperson of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee shall convene the meetings of the committee as and when necessary.
(4)

The Preliminary Inquiry Committee may co-opt into the Committee any person whose knowledge and skills are necessary for the proper determination of any matter before it.
(5)

A person co-opted under subrule (4) may attend the meetings of the Committee and participate in its deliberations but shall have no right to vote at the meeting.

[L.N. 223/2013, r. 2.]
4.
Functions of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee
(1)

The functions of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee shall be to—

(a)

conduct inquiries into the complaints submitted to it under these Rules and make appropriate recommendations to the Board;
(b)

ensure that the necessary administrative and evidential arrangements have been met so as to facilitate the Board to effectively undertake an inquiry under rule 6;
(c)

promote mediation and arbitration between the parties and refer matters to such mediator or arbitrator as the parties may in writing agree; and
(d)

at its own liberty, record and adopt mediation agreements or compromise between the parties, on the terms agreed and thereafter inform the chairperson.
(2)

Subject to paragraph (1), the Preliminary Inquiry Committee after considering the complaint and making such inquiries with respect thereto as it may think fit, shall—

(a)

if of the opinion that the complaint does not warrant reference to the Board for inquiry, reject the complaint and so inform the Chairperson;
(b)

if of the opinion that the complaint does warrant reference to the Board, cause the same to be referred to the Board together with its findings and recommendations.
(3)

The Preliminary Inquiry Committee shall, in consultation with the Board, have the power to—

(a)

levy reasonable costs of the proceedings from parties;
(b)

make an order compelling a medical practitioner or dentist to undergo continuous professional development of not more than fifty points;
(c)

suspend the licence of a medical institution for a period of not more than six months;
(d)

make an order for the closure of an institution pending the compliance by that institution, of a condition or requirement under the licence issued to it under the Act; and
(e)

make such further recommendations as the committee deems fit.

[L.N. 21/2012, s. 2(a), (b), (c), L.N. 223/2013, r. 3(a), (b), (c).]
4A.
Professional Conduct Committee
(1)

The Board may, upon the recommendation of the Preliminary Inquiry Committee, establish on an ad hoc basis, a professional Conduct Committee comprising—

(a)

a chairperson;
(b)

two persons registered in the same profession in which a medical practitioner or dentist whose conduct is being inquired is registered;
(c)

one member of the Board;
(d)

one person representing the general public;
(e)

the Board's advocate who shall be the legal advisor; and
(f)

the Chief Executive Officer of the Board.
(2)

The functions of the Professional Conduct Committee shall be to—

(a)

conduct inquiries into the complaints within such counties as the Board may specify and make appropriate recommendations to the Board;
(b)

ensure that the necessary administrative and evidential arrangements have been met so as to facilitate the Board to effectively undertake an inquiry under rule 6;
(c)

convene sittings in respective counties to determine complaints;
(d)

promote arbitration between the parties and refer matters to such arbitrator as the parties may in writing agree.
(3)

The Professional Conduct Committee shall, subject to prior or subsequent approval by the Board, have power to—

(a)

levy reasonable costs of the proceedings from parties;
(b)

order a medical practitioner or dentist to undergo continuous professional development for a maximum of up to fifty points;
(c)

suspend licenses for medical institutions for up to six months;
(d)

order, closure of institutions until compliance with the requirements of the operating licence;
(e)

admonish a doctor or dentist or the institution and conclude the case; and
(f)

make such further recommendations as the committee deems fit.
(4)

The Professional Conduct Committee may summon or correspond with persons including medical practitioners and dentists to whom a complaint relates as it thinks fit and may peruse or inspect all instruments relating to the complaint.

[L.N. 21/2012, r. 4(b).]
5.
Submission of complaint or information
(1)

Whenever a complaint or information is received by the Chairperson from any body or person and it appears to him that—

(a)

a medical practitioner or dentist has been convicted of an offence under this Act or under the Penal Code; or
(b)

that a question arises whether the conduct of a medical practitioner or dentist constitutes serious professional misconduct, the Chairperson shall submit the matter to the Preliminary Inquiry Committee and Professional Conduct Committee.
(2)

When the Preliminary Inquiry Committee refers the complaint to the Board under rule 4 (2)(b), the Chairperson shall send to the medical practitioner or dentist to whom the complaint relates a notice of inquiry which shall—

(a)

be in Form 1 in the Schedule and shall, unless the Board otherwise directs, require the party to whom it is addressed to furnish the Chairperson and every other party a notice of all the documents which he intends to rely on at the hearing;
(b)

set out, in general terms, the charge or charges of professional misconduct made against the medical practitioner or dentist; and
(c)

specify the date and time of and the place at which the inquiry is proposed to be held.
(3)

The notice of inquiry shall be sent to the medical practitioner or dentist by registered post addressed to his last known address as notified to the Registrar or by any other means approved by the Board.
(4)

In any case where there is a complainant, a copy of the notice of inquiry shall be sent to him.

[L.N. 21/2012, r. 5.]
6.
Procedure in cases relating to conviction
(1)

In cases relating to conviction, where the medical practitioner or dentist appears, the following order of proceedings shall be observed as respects proof of convictions alleged in the charge or charges—

(a)

the complainant, or if a complainant does not appear or there is no complainant, the Board's advocate shall adduce evidence of the conviction and produce before the Board a certified copy of the court proceedings which resulted in the conviction of the medical practitioner or dentist;
(b)

if, as regards any conviction no evidence is adduced, the Chairperson shall thereupon announce that the conviction has not been proved;
(c)

the Chairperson shall ask the medical practitioner or dentist whether he admits each previous conviction of which evidence is so adduced;
(d)

if the medical practitioner or dentist does not admit all the convictions, he may, if he intends to adduce other oral evidence in addition to his own evidence as respects any conviction which he does not admit either in person or by his advocate, open his case;
(e)

the medical practitioner or dentist or his advocate, as the case may be, may adduce evidence in respect of any conviction which he does not admit;
(f)

at the close of the evidence for the medical practitioner or dentist, the complainant or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may with the leave of the Board, adduce evidence to rebut any evidence adduced by the medical practitioner or dentist;
(g)

the complainant or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may address the Board and close his file;
(h)

the medical practitioner or dentist or his advocate may then address the Board and close his case.
(2)

Where the medical practitioner or dentist does not appear and the Board has decided to proceed with the inquiry, subparagraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph (1) shall apply but the remainder of that paragraph shall not apply.
(3)

On the conclusion of the proceedings under this rule the Board shall consider every conviction alleged in the charge or charges, other than any conviction which has not been admitted by the medical practitioner or dentist and shall determine whether it has been proved and the Chairperson shall then announce its determination in such terms as the Board may approve.
7.
Procedure in cases relating to conduct
(1)

In all cases relating to conduct where the medical practitioner or dentist appears the following order of proceedings shall apply—

(a)

if the complainant appears, he shall open the case against the medical practitioner or dentist or where the complainant does not appear or there is no complainant, the Board's advocate shall present all the facts on which the complaint or information is based;
(b)

the complainant or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may address the Board and adduce evidence of the facts alleged in the charge or charges;
(c)

if as respects any charge no evidence is adduced, the Board shall record and the Chairperson shall announce a finding that the medical practitioner or dentist is not guilty of infamous or disgraceful conduct in a professional respect as alleged in the charge or charges;
(d)

at the close of the case against him the medical practitioner or dentist or his advocate may make either one or both of the following submissions as respects any charge or charges which remains outstanding namely—

(i) that no sufficient evidence has been adduced upon which the Board could find that the facts alleged have been proved;
(ii) that the facts of which evidence has been adduced are insufficient to support a finding of infamous or disgraceful conduct in a professional respect;

and where any such submission is made, the complainant or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may answer the submission and the medical practitioner or dentist or his advocate may reply thereto;

(e)

if a submission is made under paragraph (d), the Board shall consider and determine whether the submission should be upheld and if the Board determines to uphold such a submission as regards any charge, it shall record, and the Chairperson shall announce, that the medical practitioner or dentist is not guilty of infamous or disgraceful conduct in a professional respect in respect of the matters to which that charge relates;
(f)

the medical practitioner or dentist may then, if he intends to adduce oral evidence in addition to his own evidence, open his case upon any charge which remains outstanding;
(g)

at the close of the evidence for the medical practitioner or dentist the complainant or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may with leave of the Board, adduce evidence to rebut any evidence adduced by the medical practitioner or dentist;
(h)

the complainant, or the Board's advocate, as the case may be, may then address the Board and close his case.
(2)

The medical practitioner or dentist or his advocate may then address the Board and close his case.
(3)

Where in a case relating to conduct the medical practitioner or dentist does not appear and the Board decides to proceed with the inquiry only subparagraphs (a), (b) and (c) of paragraph (1) shall apply.
(4)

On conclusion of the proceedings under paragraph (1) the Board shall consider and determine as respects each charge which remains outstanding which, if any, of the facts alleged in the charge has been proved to their satisfaction.
(5)

If under paragraph (3) the Board decides, as regards any charge, either that none of the facts alleged in the charge have been proved to their satisfaction, or that such facts as have been proved would be insufficient to support a finding of infamous or disgraceful misconduct in a professional respect, the Board shall record a finding that the medical practitioner or dentist, as the case may be, is not guilty of the misconduct alleged in the charge or charges.
(6)

The Chairperson shall announce determination or the finding of the Board after the procedure prescribed under this rule has been complied with.
8.
[Deleted by L.N. 21/2012, r. 6(a).]
9.
[Deleted by L.N. 21/2012, r. 6(a)]
10.
Inquiries into charges against two or more practitioners
(1)

Where a party fails to attend or be represented at a hearing of which he has been duly notified, the Committee may—

(a)

unless it is satisfied that there is sufficient reason for the absence of the party, hear and determine the application in the absence of that party; or
(b)

adjourn the hearing,

and may make such orders as to costs as it considers fit.
(2)

Before determining an application under sub rule (1)(a) of this rule, the Committee shall consider any representations made in writing submitted by that party in response to the notice of application and for the purpose of this rule, the application and any reply shall be treated as representations in writing.
(3)

A party aggrieved by the decision of the Committee under subrule (1)(a) may file an application within thirty days from the date of the decision for review of the order, and the Committee may within reasonable time review the order on such terms as it considers fit, if the Committee is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for non-attendance.
PART IIA
10A.
Application
(1)

The provision of this Part shall apply to proceedings conducted by the Preliminary Inquiry Committee and the Professional Conduct Committee or with necessary modifications, to any inquiry held by the Board sitting as a tribunal.
(2)

In this Part, "Committee" means either the Preliminary Inquiry Committee or the Professional Conduct Committee, as the case may be.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10B.
Powers of the Committee
(1)

The Committee shall, in conducting proceedings under these Rules, have power to—

(a)

administer oaths;
(b)

summon persons to attend and give evidence;
(c)

order the production of relevant documents, including court judgments; and
(d)

recover in whole or in part the cost of the inquiry not exceeding one million shillings from any or all the parties involved in the proceedings.
(2)

An oath shall be administered by the Chairperson of the Committee.
(3)

Notices and summons of the Committee shall be issued under the hand of the Registrar and shall be deemed to have been issued by the Committee.
10C.
Non-response by respondent

Where the respondent fails to respond to a notice of inquiry—

(a)

the hearing may proceed in his or her absence; and
(b)

he or she commits an act of professional misconduct.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10D.
Forms of proceedings

In the determination of complaints under these Rules, the Committee shall have due regard to the principles of natural justice and shall not be bound by any legal or technical rules of evidence applicable to proceedings before a court of law.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10E.
Language of proceedings
(1)

Proceedings before the Committee shall be conducted in English or Kiswahili.
(2)

The Committee may, at its discretion, allow an application lodged in any local language spoken in Kenya by persons or a community directly affected by the subject matter of the application, if those persons or community cannot immediately obtain a translation but undertake to do so within a reasonable time.
(3)

The Committee shall, baking into account all the circumstances, grant the assistance of a competent interpreter free of charge to a party or witness who does not understand or speak the language used at the hearing or who is deaf.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10F.
Information
(1)

The Committee may receive or obtain information from such persons as it may deem proper, including, information from such persons as the Committee considers to possess knowledge or experience in matters relating to any complaint before it.
(2)

Where a complaint is not disposed of after the preliminary investigation, the Committee shall review the complaint with a view to initiating further investigations.
(3)

Subject to the provisions of these Rules, the Committee may regulate its procedure in such manner as it deems fit.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10G.
Directions and pre-hearing orders
(1)

The Committee may on its own motion or on the application by a party to the proceedings give directions, including directions for the furnishing of further particulars or supplementary statements, as are necessary to enable the parties prepare for the hearing or assist the Committee determine the issues related to the hearing before it.
(2)

The Committee may take into account the need to protect any matter that relates to the intimate, personal or financial circumstance of any party or consists of information communicated or obtained in confidence or concerns national security and may order that all or part of the evidence of a person be heard in private or prohibit or restrict the publication of that evidence.
(3)

The Committee shall not compel a person to give any evidence or produce any document or other material that he or she could not be compelled to give or produce in a trial for an action in a court of law.
(4)

An application by a party for directions shall be made in writing to, the Committee and shall, unless accompanied by the written consent of all parties, be served by the party seeking directions on all other parties to the proceedings.
(5)

If any party objects to the directions sought, the Committee shall consider the objection and if it considers it necessary, give the parties an opportunity to appear and be heard by it on the objection raised.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10H.
Non-appearance by respondent
(1)

Where a medical practitioner or dentist whose conduct is the subject of investigation, without reasonable excuse, fails to appear either personally or by his representative at the time and place fixed in the notice of hearing served on him—

(a)

the inquiry may proceed in his absence; and
(b)

he or she commits an act of professional misconduct.
(2)

If a person appearing at the inquiry, without reasonable excuse—

(a)

refuses or fails to be sworn or affirmed;
(b)

refuses or fails to answer a question that he is required to answer by the person chairing the Committee; or
(c)

refuses or fails to produce a document that he was required to produce by a summons served, on him or her,

he or she commits an offence.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10I.
Failure to comply with directions
(1)

Where a party fails to comply with directions given under these Rules, the Committee may, in addition to other powers available to it, before or at the hearing of the complaint dismiss the whole or part of the complaint, or, as the case may be, strike out the whole or part of a respondent's reply and where appropriate, direct that a party be excluded from participating in the hearing.
(2)

The Committee shall not dismiss, strike out or give any directions under subrule (1) unless it has served a notice on the party who has failed to comply with the direction, giving him or her an opportunity to show cause why the Committee should not give directions under subrule (1) of this rule.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10J.
Varying or setting aside of directions

A medical practitioner or dentist on whom directions, including any summons, are served and who had no opportunity of objecting to the making of directions may apply to the Committee to vary or set aside the directions, but the Committee shall not do so without first notifying the person who applied for the directions and considering any representations made by him.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10K.
Summons and orders

A medical practitioner or dentist summoned to give evidence before the Committee shall be given at least seven days' notice of the hearing unless the person has informed the Committee that he or she accepts the shorter notice given.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10L.
Exclusion of persons disrupting proceedings

Without prejudice to any other powers it may have, the Committee may exclude from the hearing or part of it, any person whose conduct has disrupted or is likely, in the opinion of the Committee, to disrupt the hearing.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10M.
Failure of Parties to attend hearing
(1)

Where a party fails to attend or be represented at a hearing of which he has been duly notified, the Committee may—

(a)

unless it is satisfied that the e is sufficient reason for the absence of the party, hear and determine the application in the absence of that party; or
(b)

adjourn the hearing,

and may make such orders as to costs as it considers fit.
(2)

Before determining an application under subrule (1)(a) of this rule, the Committee shall consider any representations made in writing submitted by that party in response to the notice of application and for the purpose of this rule, the application and any reply shall be treated as representations in writing.
(3)

A party aggrieved by the decision of the Committee under subrule (1)(a) may file an application within thirty days from the date of the decision for review of the order, and the Committee may within reasonable time review the order on such terms as it considers fit, if the Committee is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for non-attendance.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10N.
Procedure at hearing
(1)

The chairperson shall, at the commencement of the hearing, explain the order of proceedings which the Committee proposes to adopt.
(2)

The Committee shall conduct the hearing in such manner as it considers suitable for the determination of the application or the clarification of issues before it and generally for the just handling of the proceedings and shall, so far as it appears to it appropriate, avoid legal technicality and formality in its proceedings.
(3)

The parties shall be heard in such order as the Committee shall determine, and shall be entitled to give evidence, call a witness, and address the Committee on both evidence and generally on the subject matter of the application.
(4)

Evidence before the Committee may be given orally or, if the Committee so orders, by affidavit or written statement, but the Committee may at any stage of the proceedings require the personal attendance of any deponent or author of a written statement.
(5)

The Committee may receive evidence of any fict which appears to it to be relevant to the application.
(6)

The Committee may, during the hearing and if it satisfied that it is just and reasonable to do so, permit a party to rely on grounds not stated in his notice of application or, as the case may be, his reply and to adduce any evidence not presented to the Committee before or at the time the Committee took the disputed decision.
(7)

The Committee may require any witness to give evidence on oath or affirmation and for that purpose it may administer an oath or affirmation in the prescribed form.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10O.
Quorum

The quorum at meetings of the Committee shall be four members.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10P.
Power to determine application without hearing

The Committee may determine the application or any issue arising therefrom without an oral hearing.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10Q.
Consolidation of proceedings

The Committee may, in its discretion and upon giving the parties concerned an opportunity to be heard, order the consolidation of any proceedings before it where complaints have been filed in respect of the same matter or in respect of several interests in the same subject in dispute.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10R.
Amendment of pleadings

The Committee may allow any amendments to the statements of complaint or response at any stage of the proceedings, provided that such amendment shall be for the interest of justice and is aimed at aiding the determination of the proceedings upon fair notice to the other party.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10S.
Extension of time

The Committee may extend the time for doing anything under this Part on such terms as the Committee thinks fit.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10T.
Demonstration and display facilities

The Committee may, at the request of any party and upon payment of the prescribed fees, provide visual demonstration facilities for the display of any maps, charts, diagrams, illustrations or texts and documents, which that party intends to exhibit during the hearing.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10U.
Opportunity to be heard or cross-examine

The Committee shall grant to any party a reasonable opportunity—

(a)

to be heard, submit evidence and make representations; and
(b)

to cross-examine witnesses to the extent necessary to ensure fair hearing.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10V.
Adjournment of proceedings
(1)

The Committee may of its own motion, or upon the application of any party, adjourn the inquiry upon such terms as it thinks fit.
(2)

Notice of an adjournment of the inquiry shall be given to the persons involved in the proceedings in writing by the Committee.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10W.
Judicial notice
(1)

The Committee may take judicial notice of—

(a)

facts that are publicly known and that may be judicially noticed by a court of law; and
(b)

generally recognized facts and any information, policy or rule that is within its specialized knowledge.
(2)

Before the Committee takes notice of any fact, information, opinion, policy or unwritten rule other than that which may be judicially noticed by a court, it shall notify the parties of its intention and afford them a reasonable opportunity to make representations with respect thereto.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10X.
Representation
(1)

Any party to the proceedings, may represent himself or be represented by an advocate of his choice.
(2)

A party represented by an advocate may, at any stage of the proceedings change his advocate upon giving notice to the Committee and his former advocate.
(3)

The party shall serve the notice of change of advocate on all other parties to the proceedings.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10Y.
Decisions of the Committee
(1)

After the hearing the complaint, the Committee may determine or order—

(a)

that the complaint be dismissed;
(b)

that the member be reprimanded;
(c)

that the member be suspended from practice for a specified period not exceeding two years; or
(d)

make such order as the Committee consider fit.
(2)

The decision of the Committee may be taken by a majority of the members present and the decision shall record whether it was unanimous or taken by a majority of the members present.
(3)

For the purposes of making the decision on the inquiry, every member of the Committee Pas one vote, and, in the event of an equality of votes, the chairperson shall have a casting vote.
(4)

The decision of the Committee may be given orally at the end of the hearing or may be reserved and shall—

(a)

be reduced to writing whether there has been a hearing or not; and
(b)

shall be signed and dated by the chairperson.
(5)

A dissenting opinion may be pronounced separately by the member who wrote it and shall be dated and signed by that member.
(6)

Every document containing a decision referred to in this rule shall, as soon as may be reasonable, be entered in the register and the Committee shall send a copy of the entry to each party.
(7)

Except where a decision is announced at the end of the heating, it shall be treated as having been made on the date on which a copy of the document recording it is sent to the applicant.
(8)

Every order or determination of the Committee shall be made under the hand of chairperson or in his or her absence by the person chairing the meeting at which the order or determination is made.
(9)

Every under or determination of the Committee bearing the signauture of the person chairing shall be prima facie evidence that the order or determination is that of the Committee.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
10Z.
Reasons for Decisions

The Committee shall give reasons for reaching its,itietision, and each decision shall include—

(a)

a statement of the findings of fact made from the evidence adduced, including, where applicable, any relevant government policy; and
(b)

a statement of the laws and rules of law applied, and the interpretation thereof.

[L.N. 223/2013, s. 6.]
PART III – PROCEEDINGS RELATING TO APPLICATIONS FOR RESTORATION
11.
Application for resoration of name on register
(1)

Any application for restoration of the name of any medical practitioner or dentist on the register or the restoration of a licence after removal or cancellation pursuant to sections 19 and 20 of the Act shall be in Form 2 set out in the Schedule.
(2)

All applications for restoration of the name on the register shall be accompanied by a certificate of identity and good character in Form 3 set out in the Schedule and signed by a medical practitioner or dentist, as the case may be, of at least ten years standing.
(3)

The medical practitioner or dentist making an application under paragraph (1) shall give the names of three referees, two of who shall be medical practitioners or dentists of consultant status or of at least ten years experience and of good repute and standing and one of whom shall be a non-medical person of good repute and social status, to whom the Board can send a request for information about the character, habits and conduct of the applicant during the period of suspension.
(4)

At the hearing of the application the following procedure shall be followed—

(a)

the registrar shall state to the Board the circumstances in which the applicant's name was removed or erased from the register or the licence cancelled and shall adduce evidence as to the conduct of the medical practitioner or dentist since that time;
(b)

the Chairperson shall then invite the applicant to address the Board if he so wishes, and adduce evidence as to his conduct since his name was erased from the register or the licence was cancelled;
(c)

the Board may, if it thinks fit, receive oral or written observation on the applicant from any body or person whose complaint resulted in the applicant's name being erased from the register or licence being cancelled.
(5)

At the close of the proceedings under this rule, the Board shall record and the Chairperson shall pronounce the finding or determination of the Board.
(6)

Subject to the provision of this rule, the proceedings of the Board in connection with applications for restoration of the name of a medical practitioner or dentist on the register or restoration of a licence after cancellation, as the case may be, shall he such as the Board may determine.
PART IV – GENERAL
12.
Adjournment of proceedings

The Board may at any stage during an inquiry under these Rules adjourn its proceedings as it thinks fit.
13.
Proceedings to be in camera

The proceedings of the Board shall be held in camera.
14.
Summons at proceedings

The Board may issue summons, in the Form 4 set out in the Schedule, to any person to attend as a witness or to produce any documents.
15.
Notes taken at proceedings

Any party to the proceedings shall, on application, be furnished with a certified copy of the proceedings or determination or finding of the Board on the payment of a fee of two hundred shillings for every page of the certified copy of the proceedings or determination or finding of the Board.
16.
Venue of meetings

Meetings of the Board for purposes of an inquiry under these Rules, except in so far as the Chairperson may otherwise direct, shall be held at the offices of the Board and may be held as regularly as circumstances require.
17.
Service of documents

The service of summons or documents shall be by post or by any means approved by the Board as being the most convenient in the circumstances.
18.
Evidence
(1)

For the purpose of these Rules, the Board may receive oral, documentary or other evidence of any fact or matter which appears to it to be relevant to the inquiry into any matter before it.
(2)

The Board may, if satisfied that the interests of justice will not be prejudiced, admit in evidence without strict proof, copies of documents which are themselves admissible, maps, plans, recorded tapes, photographs, certificates of conviction and sentence, certificates of birth and marriage and death, the records including records of the Ministry of Health and other Government Ministries, records of private practitioners, private medical institutions and any other relevant sources, the notes and minutes of proceedings before the Board and before other tribunals and courts, and the Board may take note without strict proof thereof of the professional qualifications, the address and the identity of the medical practitioner or dentist.
(3)

The Board may accept and act on admissions made by any party and may in such cases dispense with proof of the matters admitted.

SCHEDULE

FORMS

FORM 1

[r. 5 (3)]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)

Dr/Mr/Mrs/Miss ..............................................................

Address .....................................................................

.............................................................................

Dear Sir/Madam,

On behalf of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Boards, notice is hereby given to you that in consequence of a complaint made to the Board against you/information received by the Board an inquiry is to be held into the following charge/charges against you.

(1)

If the charge relates to a conviction:

That you were on the ..................... day of .....................at ................... (specify court recording the conviction) convicted of ...........................................

................................................................................

................................................................................

(set out particulars of the conviction in sufficient detail to identify the case)

(2)

If the charge relates to conduct:

That being registered under the Act you ....................................

............................................................................

(set out briefly the facts alleged) ............................... and that in relation to the facts alleged you have been guilty of infamous conduct in a professional respect.
(3)

Where there is more than one charge, the charges are to be stated consecutively. (Charges relating to conviction being set out before charges relating to conduct). Notice is further given to you that on the ............................ day of ..................... 20..................... a meeting of the Board will be held at Afya House, Cathedral Road Nairobi at a.m./p.m. to consider the above charge/charges against you and to determine whether or not the Board should direct the Registrar to remove your name from the register pursuant to section 20 (1) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Act (Cap. 253)

You are hereby invited to answer in writing the above mentioned charge/charges and also to appear in person before the Board at the place, date and time specified above for the purpose of answering the charge/charges. You may bring your advocate with you. The Board has power to hear and decide upon the said charge/charges in your absence if you do not appear.

Any answer, admission or other statement or communication which you may desire to make with respect to the said charge/charges should be addressed to the Chairperson of the Board.

If you desire to make any application that the inquiry should be postponed, you should send the application to the Secretary of the Board as soon as possible, stating the grounds on which you desire a postponement

Dated this ............................ day of ............ 20....

.............................................

Registrar of the Board.

___________________________

FORM 2.

[r. 11]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
APPLICATION FOR RESTORATION OF NAME IN THE REGISTER

(Note: This declaration must be made before a practitioner of not less than 10 years experience and of good standing.)

I, the undersigned ...........................................................

of (address) .................................................................

..............................................................................

now holding the qualification(s) of ..........................................

..............................................................................

do solemnly and sincerely declare as follows:

1.

I am the person formerly registered as a medical practitioner/dentist under the name of ............................................ and the qualification(s) of ............................. registration number ................................ and, I hereby apply for the restoration of my name to the register.
2.

In an inquiry held on the ..................... day of 20.... at ........................... (place) the Board directed my name to be erased from the register, and the offence for which the Board directed the erasure of my name was ......................................

.................................................................................................
3.

Since the erasure of my name from the register, I have been residing at ..........................

.......................................................................................

and my occupation has been ...........................................................

.......................................................................................
4.

It is my intention if my name is restored to the register to engage in private practice/to be employed, (others specify) ................

.........................................................................................
5.

The grounds of my application are .................................................

......................................................................................

.....................................................................................
6.

Names and addresses of my referees:

(a)

..................................................................................

......................................................................................

(b)

..................................................................................

......................................................................................

(c)

..................................................................................

......................................................................................

Declared at ................................. Signed .........................

On ......................................... Date ............................

Before me ...........................................................(Full Name)

Signed .........................................................................

Name of practitioner in full and registration/date of qualification

Date ............................
___________________________

FORM 3.

[r. 11(2).]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
CERTIFICATE OF IDENTITY AND GOOD CHARACTER

I, ....................................................................

of (address) ..........................................................

do certify as follows : —

1.

I have read the statutory declaration made on the .................

................................ day of 20..................... by

Dr/ Mr /Mrs /Miss ...................................................

of (address) .......................................................
2.

The said Dr/Mr/Mrs/Miss .........................................

was formerly registered as a medical/dental practitioner with the following address and qualification(s) ............................

.......................................................................

Registration No. .....................................................
3.

I have been and am well acquainted with the said Dr / Mr /Mrs /Miss .................

both before and since his name was erased from the register, and I believe him to be now a person of good character, and the statements in the said declaration are, to the best of my knowledge, information and belief, true.

Signed ....................................

Registered address ..................................

Registered Qualifications ................................

..........................................................

..........................................................

Date .....................................................

Dated this .................... day of .......................20 ..........

Signature of Witness ......................................................

Address ................................... Date ..........................
___________________________

FORM 4.

[r. 14]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT
(Cap. 253)
WITNESS SUMMONS

To ................................................

...................................................

In pursuance of s. 20(3) of the above Act, you are hereby commanded to attend in person as a witness in an inquiry to be held before the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board against Dr/Mr/Mrs/Miss ..........................................................................................................................at the Ministry of Health Headquarters, Afya House, Cathedral Road, Nairobi on .................................................................. and to remain in attendance until released by the Board.

Under the provisions of s. 20(3) of the Act, any person who fails when summoned by the Board to attend as a witness or to produce any books, documents or other exhibits, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable to a fine of KSh. 2,000 or to imprisonment for one month.

Dated this ........................ day of .................. 20....

......................................

Registrar of the Board

Summons received on .............................................................

by Signature of Witness .........................................................

served by ......................

Date and time ....................... Date and time ....................

place..................................

___________________________
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REGISTRATION, LICENSING, ASSESSMENT AND INTERNSHIP) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

PART I – PRELIMINARY

PART II – REGISTRATION AND LICENSING

PART III – ASSESSMENT

PART IV – INTERNSHIP QUALIFYING EXAMINATION AND REMEDIAL TRAINING

PART V – INTERNSHIP

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REGISTRATION, LICENSING, ASSESSMENT AND INTERNSHIP) RULES
PART I – PRELIMINARY
1.

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Registration, Licensing, Assessment and Internship) Rules.
2.

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"assessment" means the determination of the suitability of a person for registration or licensing under the Act including by means of oral or written examination or both, and the determination of a period, if any, iwhich the Board considers necessary for a person to undergo remedial training;

"chairman" means the chairman of the Board;

"co-ordinator" means the person for the time being appointed as co-ordinator of assessment examinations under rule 9;

"intern" means a person holding a medical or dental degree or diploma recognized by the Board, or a person who has passed the internship qualifying examination, and who is undergoing a prescribed period of internship in a recognized institution;

"internship" means training employment;

"internship qualifying examination" means a written or oral examination or both which determines the suitability of foreign trained graduates who do not hold degrees or diplomas recognized by the Board to undergo internship;

"licensed" means licensed under section 13 of the Act to render medical or dental services;

"recognized institution" means an institution declared to br a recognized institution for internship and gazetted in accordance with regulation 29(3);

"registered" means registered as a medical practitioner or dentist under section 6 of the Act;

"remedial training" means a period of extra training in a defined discipline or disciplines determined from time to time by the Board;

"supervisor" means a medical or dental practitioner of consultant status appointed by the Board to supervise the performance of an intern in any one of the approved disciplines during the period of internship.

[L.N. 131/2005, r. 2(a).]
PART II – REGISTRATION AND LICENSING
3.

(1) An application for registration or licensing shall be submitted to the Registrar in the form, and together with fee, prescribed in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules (L.N. 19/1978) and shall be accompanied by—

(a)

legible photocopies of the applicant's diplomas, degrees, licences or other qualifications, and testimonials, all of which shall be attested against the originals by an official of the Board; and
(b)

a curriculum vitae.
(2)

An application by a person registered in a foreign country shall, in addition to the documents specified in paragraph (1), be accompanied by a certificate of good standing and registration or similar certificate containing evidence of registration from the appropriate foreign authority.
4.

A medical or dental practitioner who was previously registered in Kenya and who on the 1st January, 1978 had attained the age of sixty five and retired shall be exempted from paying any registration fee.
5.

The Registrar shall issue free of charge a licence to enable an applicant who has satisfied the provisions of Parts IV and V of these Rules to undergo an internship.
6.

The Registrar, in consultation with the chairman, shall, on behalf of the Board, issue, on payment of the prescribed fee, a licence to an applicant who is not otherwise eligible to be registered and who is considered to be of good character and a fit and proper person to be licensed, or who does not wish to be registered even though he is qualified to be registered, to render medical or dental services in a salaried post as provided by sections 13 and 14 of the Act.
7.

The Board shall approve all applications for registration or licensing before certificates of registration or licences are issued.
PART III – ASSESSMENT
8.

No person to whom section 11(2) of the Act applies shall be registered unless he has passed or has been exempted from an assessment examination.
9.

(1) There is hereby established a committee known as the assessment committee which shall consist of a co-ordinator of assessment examinations who shall be the deputy chairman of the Board and such other members as may be appointed by the Board from time to time.

(2)

The committee shall consist of two panels, one of which shall consist of four medical practitioners and the other of two dentists.
(3)

Where the co-ordinator sits on any panel he shall be the chairman of that panel in any other case he shall appoint a chairman.
(4)

The committee shall sit at least once in three months.
10.

The committee may co-opt not more than two medical practitioners and two dentists, one of whom may be of consultant status, who are not members of the Board, to serve on the relevant panel from time to time.
11.

The co-ordinator shall as soon as possible after completion of an assessment examination submit to the Board a written report signed by the members of the panel giving in the case of each candidate—

(a)

the name and address;
(b)

the marks attained in oral and written examination and the result;
(c)

any recommendations as to whether the candidate should be referred for further internship or remedial training and for how long;
(d)

any other general recommendations, observations or remarks.
12.

Where a report is submitted under rule 11 recommending that a candidate should not be registered, the Board shall, unless it proposes to authorize registration notwithstanding such report, inform the candidate concerned of the substance of the committee's report and recommendations.
13.

(1) A candidate may, within fourteen days of his being informed of the committee's recommendation that he should not be registered, appeal to the full Board against such report and recommendation.
14.

A candidate for an assessment examination shall pay to the Board a fee of one hundred shillings.
PART IV – INTERNSHIP QUALIFYING EXAMINATION AND REMEDIAL TRAINING
15.

Any person who has qualified outside Kenya shall be required to engage in internship and, unless exempted under rule 20, shall be required to pass an internship qualifying examination (in this part referred to as "the examination"), which may be written or oral or both, recognized and approved by the Board and which is of equivalent standard to the qualifying examinations in medicine or dentistry of the University of Nairobi.
16.

The examination shall be conducted by the assessment committee and shall be held as and when necessary.
17.

(1) A candidate who fails the examination shall be required to undergo a period of remedial training in those disciplines in which in the opinion of the assessment committee he has inadequate knowledge.

(2)

A remedial training period shall as far as possiblie be continuous and shall not exceed a total of six months.
(3)

On expiry of a remedial training period a written report shall be submitted to the Board by the administrator or medical superintendent of the relevant hospital in consultation with the candidate's supervisor.
(4)

A person shall be required to undergo remedial training if—

(a)

he fails to pass the examination;
(b)

he does not satisfy his supervisors during his internship;
(c)

he fails assessment examination after three consecutive attempts at monthly intervals;
(d)

he has been subject to disciplinary action arising out of professional incompetence.
18.

A person who fails the examination shall be allowed two more attempts which shall be made during the remedial training period, and any person who fails the examination three times shall be deemed unsuitable for internship or for registration or licensing.
19.

A fee of one hundred shillings shall be payable by a candidate for the examination each time it is attempted.
20.

Medical and dental graduates who are holders of degrees or diplomas which are recognized by the Board shall be exempted from the examination.
21.

A period of remedial training may be undergone voluntarily by any person before attempting the examination.
22.

(1) Any administrator of a medical institution in Kenya which, without prior approval of the Board, offers internship to a person who has neither passed the examination nor been exempted under rule 20, shall be guilty of an offence, and liable to a fine not exceeding five thousand shillings.
PART V – INTERNSHIP
23.

A person who is holder of a degree, diploma or other qualification which is recognized by the Board or who passed the internship qualifying examination referred to in Part IV shall undergo a prescribed period of internship.
24.

(1) An intern shall receive from the Board at the commencement of the period of internship a copy of "Guide Lines for Interns" detailing all the disciplines and areas which he is expected to cover during the prescribed period of internship before being considered for registration.
25.

During the period of internship, an intern shall be under the supervision and guidance of the employing institution in conjunction with the approved supervisors and he shall be offered every opportunity and facility to enable him to undergo his internship.
26.

On completion of internship, an intern shall submit a duly completed internship assessment form to the Board through the medical superintendent of the recognized hospital where he has completed his internship, and through the Provincial Medical Officer of the respective province.
27.

Upon receipt of the supervisor's recommendations, the Board shall issue a registration certificate or licence, or direct the intern to undergo a further period of internship in the disciplines in which his performance may have been found to be unsatisfactory; and such further period of internship may be undertaken in the same or a different institution or institutions for a period of not less than three months.
28.

No person shall be entitled to be registered as a medical or dental practitioner unless he has successfully completed a prescribed period of internship.
29.

(1) Institutions which shall be recognized by the Board for training employment shall meet the following requirements—

(a)

they shall have been gazetted as approved medical institutions in accordance with the Act;
(b)

provision of constant supervision of interns, in the case of medical interns, by at least one consultant or specialist and one other full time medical practitioner with a postgraduate qualification in each of the following disciplines, namely medicine, paediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology and surgery, and in the case of dental interns by at least two dentists of consultant grade and one additional dentist with a post-graduate qualification;
(c)

provision in addition of at least one consultant or specialist in pathology, radiology and anaesthetics;
(d)

provision of a properly stocked and functioning medical library, and every such institution shall be liable to inspection by the Board from time to time in order that the Board may satisfy itself that the provisions of this rule are being complied with.
(2)

Any institution which fails to provide the minimum requirements specified in paragraph (1) may have its recognition withdrawn by the Board.
(3)

Notwithstanding any other provisions of these Rules, the Board may from time to time, by notice in the Gazette, declare recognized institutions for internship.

SCHEDULE

[Deleted by LN 131 of 2005, r. 2(b).]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PRIVATE PRACTICE) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Eligibility for licence to engage in private practice
4.

Application for a licence
5.

Conditions in licences
6.

Notice of refusal to grant a licence, etc.
7.

Locums

PART III – PRIVATE CLINICS

8.

Interpretation
9.

Board to approve premises
10.

Conditions for issue of a licence under this Part
11.

Restriction on number of private clinics
12.

Licensee to indicate name, etc.
13.

Licensee's assistants
14.

Keeping of essential drugs
15.

Notification of disease etc.
16.

Manner of dressing
17.

Clinical radiological laboratories

PART IV – NURSING HOMES AND HOSPITALS

18.

Inspection of nursing homes and hospitals
19.

Responsibility of owner, etc., of nursing homes
20.

Responsibilities of adminstrator of approved medical institutions

PART V – COMMITTEES

21.

Establishment of private practice committee
22.

Establishment of the specialist committee

PART VI – SPECIALIST PRACTICE

23.

Specialisties in medical practice
24.

Specialities in dentistry
25.

Board to recognize specialists
26.

Application of Part II

PART VII – PRIVATE CLINICAL LABORATORY MEDICINE

27.

Licence to practice clinical laboratory medicine
28.

Saving
29.

Requirements for clinical laboratories
30.

Investigations carried out in clinical laboratory medicine
31.

Duties of a practitioner operating a clinical laboratory
32.

Fees
33.

Offences

PART VIII – PRIVATE CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL

34.

Licence to practice clinical radiological medicine
35.

Savings
36.

Requirements for a clinical radiological laboratory
37.

Undertaking of operations in a clinical radiological laboratory
38.

Duties of the owner of a clinical radiological laboratory
39.

Screening facilties
40.

Fees

PART IX – MISCELLANEOUS

41.

Board to prescribe fees
42.

Penalties
43.

Legal proceedings, etc.
44.

Mode of serving notices
45.

Postgraduate qualifications

SCHEDULES

FIRST SCHEDULE [r. 7(3)] —

CONSENT TO PRACTISE AS LOCUM
SECOND SCHEDULE [rr. 10(1)(c), 12(1), (14)] —

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS
THIRD SCHEDULE [r. 15(1)] —

RETURN OF NOTIFIABLE INFECTIOUS DISEASES
FOURTH SCHEDULE [rr. 27, 29] —

MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR A CLINICAL LABORATORY
FIFTH SCHEDULE [r. 36] —

REQUIREMENTS FOR A CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL LABORATORY
SIXTH SCHEDULE [r. 45] —

LIST OF APPROVED SPECIALIST POSTGRADUATE QUALIFICATION

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PRIVATE PRACTICE) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Practice) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"advertise" means to issue or cause to be issued a sign, notice, circular, label or wrapper or to make any announcement orally or by means of producing or transmitting light or sound;

"approved clinical laboratory" means a private clinical laboratory which is covered on a full time basis by a pathologist and is so equipped as to enable the carrying out therein of investigations in clinical chemistry, haematology and microbiology;

"approved medical institution" means a Government or private hospital or nursing home which has been declared by the Board to be an approved institution;

"approved radiological laboratory" means a private radiological laboratory which is covered on a full time basis by a radiologist and is so equipped as to enable the carrying out therein of investigations in general radiology in addition to special radiological investigations;

"clinic" means consulting rooms, offices or an outpatient department without beds used by a practitioner for the diagnosis and treatment of disease or the giving of medical or dental advice and instructions;

"clinical laboratory" means premises for examining specimens for the purpose of providing information on diagnosis, treatment or prevention of disease;

"clinical radiological laboratory" means premises in which ionising radiations are used for nuclear medicine, diagnostic research or therapeutic purposes;

"general practice" means the practice of general medicine or dentistry other than specialist practice as defined in these Rules;

"hospital" means an institution which has, in addition to resident medical practitioners or dentists, an operating theatre and a mortuary;

"immediate supervision" means being available to give help and guidance when required;

"ionising radiations" means gamma rays, x-rays, alpha and beta particles, high speed electrons, neutrons, protons and other nuclear particles or electromagnetic radiation capable of producing ions directly or indirectly in their passage through matter;

"laboratory medicine" means the practice of all or any of the following disciplines, namely pathology, clinical chemistry, microbiology and parasitology, haematology, morbid anatomy and histology, cytology, immunopathology, forensic pathology and other disciplines relevant thereto;

"licence" means a licence to engage in full-time or part-time private practice;

"locum" means a registered medical practitioner or dentist substituting and providing services for another registered medical practitioner or dentist;

"maternity home" means any premises used for the reception of expectant women or of women who have given birth within the preceding six weeks;

"medical laboratory technician" means a holder of a certificate in medical laboratory technology issued by the Medical Training Centre or similar institution which is recognized by the Ministry of Health;

"medical laboratory technologist" means a holder of a certificate or a diploma in medical laboratory technology issued by the University of Nairobi or similar institution which is recognized by the Ministry of Health.

"nursing home" means any premises howsoever named or described which is used for the reception of, and for provision of medical care and nursing for, persons suffering from any sickness, injury or infirmity and having a mortuary, and an outpatient department, but does not include premises maintained or directly controlled by the Government or a local authority;

"pathologist" means a specialist in one or all of the disciplines in clinical laboratory medicine;

"private clinic" means a clinic where a private practice is carried out;

"private practice" means giving medical, surgical or dental advice, attendance or performing an operation, or engaging in radiological or clinical laboratory medicine for a fee;

"radiographer" means a holder of a diploma in radiology obtained from the Medical Training Centre or such similar which is recognized by the Ministry of Health;

"radiographic film processor" means a holder of a certificate attesting to his proficiency in radiographic film processing at the Medical Training Centre or such similar institution recognized by the Ministry of Health;

"radiologist" means a specialist in the use of ionising radiation;

"single discipline pathologist" means a medically qualified person whose training has not covered all the disciplines of clinical laboratory medicine, but who is a specialist in any of the disciplines in pathology;

"specialist" means a medical practitioner or dentist who has completed an approved training programme in a particular discipline in medicine or dentistry, and who has acquired a recognized postgraduate qualification or its equivalent, and who thereafter has gained sufficient experience and shown to the Board's satisfaction adequate clinical, radiological or laboratory skill, in his chosen discipline;

"specialist practice" means the practice of medicine or dentistry in a specialized discipline as specified in these Rules.
3.
Eligibility for licence to engage in private practice

A medical practitioner or dentist shall be eligible for a licence to engage in private practice under section 14 of the Act on his own behalf either full or part time or in the employment, either full or part time, of a private practitioner or group of private practitioners, if he has worked continuously in Kenya on a full time basis in a salaried post in a Government or private hospital or in any non-profit making approved medical institution for a period of not less than three years.
4.
Application for a licence
(1)

An application for a licence to engage in private practice shall be in the Form VI set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, 1978 (L.N. 19/1978), and shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee.
(2)

An application for renewal of a licence shall be made under this Part and shall be made not less than six weeks before the date of expiry of the licence.
(3)

An application for permission to change the premises to which the licence relates may be made at any time.
(4)

The Board may, on application—

(a)

for renewal of a licence; or
(b)

for change of premises,

request such further relevant information from an applicant as it thinks fit.
(5)

Any person who includes, or causes to be included, in any application, or in response to a request for information from the Board, any information which he knows or has cause to believe is incorrect shall be guilty of an offence.
5.
Conditions in licences
(1)

The Board may impose any conditions on a licensee under this Part and in particular may impose a condition that the private practice of the licensee shall not conflict with the terms and conditions of his employment.
(2)

A licence shall be issued in respect only of the premises named therein and may not apply to any other premises unless the authority of the Board for it to do so has previously been obtained.
(3)

A licensee shall display a licence in a conspicuous position at the premises to which it relates and any licensee who fails to do so shall be guilty of an offence.
(4)

The Board may cancel a licence if any of the conditions imposed under it are contravened.
(5)

Where a licensee ceases his private practice he shall surrender his licence to the Board within thirty days of so doing.
6.
Notice of refusal to grant a licence, etc.
(1)

The Board shall, before—

(a)

refusing to grant or renew a licence; or
(b)

refusing to allow a change of premises to Which the licence relates; or
(c)

cancelling the licence,

give to the applicant or licensee not less than twenty-eight days notice in writing stating its intention so to act; and such notice shall inform the applicant or licensee that he may within twenty-one days of receipt of the notice inform the Board in writing whether he wishes to be heard on the question of such proposed refusal or cancellation.
(2)

Where the applicant or licensee informs the Board in writing under paragraph (1) that he wishes to be heard the Board shall not effect such refusal or cancellation before it has given him an opportunity to show cause why the application or licence should not be refused or cancelled.
(3)

Where the Board, after complying with this rule, refuses to grant or renew a licence, or cancels a licence, it shall inform the applicant or licensee of its decision within fourteen days of the expiry of the period of twenty-eight days referred to in paragraph (1) or, where the applicant or licensee has been heard, within fourteen days of the hearing; and the Board shall inform the applicant or licensee the reason for its decision.
(4)

Any appeal to the High Court under section 15 (6) of the Act against the decision of the Board under this rule shall be made within thirty days of the receipt of the decision.
7.
Locums
(1)

A medical practitioner or dentist who wishes to work as a locum for another practitioner shall be required to satisfy requirements for eligibility for a licence to engage in private practice specified in rule 3.
(2)

A prospective locum shall make an application in Form VI set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, 1978, stating the period during which he requires to a locum:

Provided that in the case of an emergency a medical practitioner or dentist may act as a locum for a period not exceeding fourteen days during which time he shall inform the Board of his action and make a formal application under this paragraph.
(3)

Where the duration of a locum practice is not to exceed six weeks the Registrar or Chairman may give his written consent to the applicant to practise as a locum in the form specified in the First Schedule and no fee shall be payable by the applicant.
(4)

Where an applicant wishes to work as a locum for a period exceeding six weeks he shall obtain a licence to engage in private practice in Form VII set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, 1978, and pay the prescribed fees.
(5)

A practitioner may not work as a locum for more than two periods each one of which is not less than fourteen days and does not exceed three months in duration in any one year without special permission from the Board so to do.
PART III – PRIVATE CLINICS
8.
Interpretation

In this Part, "licensee" means a medical practitioner or dentist licensed to operate a private clinic under rule 9.
9.
Board to approve premises
(1)

No private practitioner shall operate a private clinic unless the premises where the clinic is situate have been approved by the Board.
(2)

A private practitioner who wishes to operate a private clinic shall apply to the Board in writing for permission to use the premises intended for use as a private clinic before applying for a licence to engage in private practice; and the Board shall grant or refuse to grant a licence under this paragraph within thirty days of receiving the application.
(3)

A licence to operate a private clinic shall be in Form VII set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, 1978, and shall be issued on payment of the prescribed fee.
10.
Conditions for issue of a licence under this Part
(1)

A licence under rule 9 shall be issued subject to such conditions as the Board thinks fit including in any case the conditions that the licensed premises shall—

(a)

be kept in good order and a good state of repair;
(b)

be kept reasonably secure from unauthorized entry;
(c)

conform to the minimum requirements set out in Part A or Part B of the Second Schedule, as that case may be, and any other written law, and in particular tile Public Health Act (Cap. 242); and
(d)

not be a residential building except with special permission from the Board.
(2)

A private clinic licensed under these Rules shall be open for inspection at any reasonable time by an authorized officer of the Board and any person who wilfully obstructs such an officer acting in the course of his duty shall be guilty of an offence and liable to a fine not exceeding one thousand shillings.
11.
Restriction on number of private clinics
(1)

A private practitioner shall not be licensed to operate more than one private clinic; except that the Board may permit a private practitioner to operate two clinics where both are situate in a rural area.
(2)

If more than one private clinic is permitted under paragraph (1), a separate licence shall be issued and a separate fee be paid in respect of each clinic.
12.
Licensee to indicate name, etc.
(1)

A licensee shall indicate his name and qualifications outside his clinic in an unostentatious manner and in accordance with the "Code of Professional Conduct and Discipline" and the name and qualification so indicated shall conform to the provisions of paragraph 4 of Part A of the Second Schedule.
(2)

A licensee who—

(a)

uses any words implying that a private clinic is a hospital or a nursing home;
(b)

advertises a private clinic in any manner whatsoever to the general public,

shall be guilty of an offence.
13.
Licensee's assistants
(1)

A licensee may employ as an assistant any person who has undergone a recognized training in medicine, dentistry, nursing or midwifery in an approved training institution, and who is not registered as a medical practitioner or dentist, to undertake defined duties under the immediate supervision of the licensee or a registered practitioner employed by him.
(2)

Where any assistant employed under paragraph (1) undertakes or offers to undertake any form of medical or dental treatment independently without the immediate supervision of a medical practitioner or dentist he shall be guilty of an offence.
(3)

Paragraph (2) shall be in addition to and not in derogation of the provisions of section 22 of the Act.
14.
Keeping of essential drugs
(1)

A licensee shall keep in his private clinic adequate stocks of essential drugs listed in paragraph 3 of the Second Schedule.
(2)

A licensee shall keep an accurate record of all drugs to which the Pharmacy and Poisons Act (Cap. 244) and the Dangerous Drugs Act (Repealed) apply.
15.
Notification of disease etc.
(1)

A licensee shall immediately notify the medical officer of health of any of the notifiable diseases set out in Third Schedule which he treats in his clinic.
(2)

A licensee shall immediately notify the police in the event of any death occurring in his clinic and supply to them all relevant information concerning such death.
16.
Manner of dressing

A Licensee shall, whilst on duty, at all times be dressed and groomed in such a manner as to portray a respectable image to the public and in particular he shall observe the standards of ethics laid down in the "Code of Professional Conduct and Discipline".
17.
Clinical radiological laboratories
(1)

A private clinic may not include a clinical radiological laboratory unless the practitioner who operate the clinic—

(a)

is himself qualified in the use of ionising radiation; or
(b)

employs a radiographer,

and in either case the person referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) personally undertakes the radiological examination of patients.
(2)

A private clinic may not include a clinical laboratory unless—

(a)

examination of the specimens obtained from patients in that laboratory is undertaken by the private practitioner personally or a qualified medical laboratory technician or technologist;
(b)

examinations are limited in the way prescribed in paragraph (3).
(3)

A clinical laboratory may only be used for the purposes of undertaking investigations of the following nature—

(a)

haemoglobin;
(b)

blood slides;
(c)

urinalysis;
(d)

stool microscopy;
(e)

occult blood tests;
(f)

gram stains;
(g)

special smears.
(4)

Neither a clinical radiological laboratory nor a clinical laboratory may be used as a referral laboratory for a practitioner who does not operate, or is not employed by the clinic concerned; and any person who in such laboratory—

(a)

undertakes the examination of patients or specimens from patients; or
(b)

treats patients,

who have been referred from outside the practice concerned shall be guilty of an offence.
PART IV – NURSING HOMES AND HOSPITALS
18.
Inspection of nursing homes and hospitals
(1)

Nursing homes and hospitals shall be subject to inspection by the Board.
(2)

The operator of a nursing home or hospital shall submit to the Board once in every six months lists of—

(a)

all medical practitioners and dentists in their employment; and
(b)

all medical practitioners and dentists who are authorized to use their premises, indicating in each case the authorized place for use as a private clinic.
19.
Responsibility of owner, etc., of nursing homes
(1)

It shall be the responsibility of the owner and the managing body of a nursing home or private hospital to acquaint themselves fully with—

(a)

the qualifications; and
(b)

the professional conduct,

of all medical practitioners and dentists working at the nursing home of all medical practitioners and they shall consult the Board in case of any doubt.
(2)

The owner and the managing body of a nursing home or private hospital, as well as the medical practitioner or dentist concerned, shall be responsible for any instance of professional misconduct occurring within the premises about which they know or ought reasonably to have known.
20.
Responsibilities of adminstrator of approved medical institutions

The administrators of approved medical institutions shall ensure that no medical practitioners or dentists working there engage in private practice outside the areas of specialization and competency for which they have been licensed except—

(a)

in cases of emergency; or
(b)

in cases where practitioners with the requisite specializations are not reasonably available.
PART V – COMMITTEES
21.
Establishment of private practice committee
(1)

There shall be a committee to be known as the private practice committee which shall be composed, subject to paragraph (2), of not more than five members appointed by the Board from among its members.
(2)

The committee shall elect its own Chairman and shall have power to co-opt not more than two members from outside the Board whenever necessary.
(3)

The committees shall be responsible for reviewing, whenever it is in its opinion necessary, applications for licences to engage in private practice, fees charged in private practice and such other matters as shall be assigned to it by the Chairman of the Board.
(4)

The committee shall report its findings to the Board.
22.
Establishment of the specialist committee
(1)

There shall be a committee to be known as the specialist committee which shall be composed, subject to paragraph (2), of not more than five members appointed by the Board from among its members.
(2)

The committee shall elect its own Chairman and shall have powers to co-opt not more than one medical practitioner or dentist from any speciality from outside the Board whenever necessary.
(3)

The committee shall be responsible for reviewing the postgraduate qualifications for inclusion in the list of approved specialist qualifications and shall also scrutinize applications for specialist practice and such other matters as shall be assigned to it by the Chairman of the Board.
PART VI – SPECIALIST PRACTICE
23.
Specialisties in medical practice
(1)

The following are major specialities in medical practice—

(a)

general medicine;
(b)

paediatrics;
(c)

surgery;
(d)

obstetrics and gynaecology:
(e)

pathology;
(f)

radiology;
(g)

anaesthesiology;

and such other specialities as may be approved by the Board from time to time.
(2)

Clinical medicine—

(a) medicine:

psychiatry, cardiology, neurology, nephrology, gastroenterology, rheumatology, dermatology, venereology, geriatrics, communicable diseases, occupational medicine, tropical medicine, haematology, endocrinology, immunology, and such other sub-specialities as may be approved by the Board from time to time;

(b) in paediatrics:

psychiatry, cardiology, neurology, nephrology, gastroenterology, rheumatology, dermatology, haematology, neonatology, communicable diseases, endocrinology, tropical medicine, immunology, and such other sub-specialities as may be approved by the Board from time to time;

(c) in surgery:

general surgery, neurosurgery, cardiothoracic surgery, paediatric surgery, otorhinolaryngology, urology, ophthalmology and such other sub-specialities as may be approved by the Board from time to time.
(3)

The following are approved sub-specialities in clinical laboratory medicine (pathology)—

clinical chemistry, medical microbiology, haematology and blood transfusion, morbid anatomy and histopathology, cytology, forensic pathology, immunopathology and such sub-specialities as the Board may approve from time to time.
(4)

The following are approved sub-specialities in clinical radiological medicine—

radiodiagnosis, radiotherapy and nuclear medicine.
24.
Specialities in dentistry

The following are major specialities in dentistry—oral and maxilliofacial surgery, prosthetics, orthodontics, conservative dentistry and periodontology, ondodontics and such other specialities as may be approved by the Board from time to time.
25.
Board to recognize specialists

The Board may recognize a medical practitioner or dentist as a specialist in any one or more of the disciplines referred to in rules 23 and 24 and shall publish a list of the specialists so recognized annually in the Gazette.
26.
Application of Part II

Part II shall apply to medical practitioners or dentists engaged in specialist practice.
PART VII – PRIVATE CLINICAL LABORATORY MEDICINE
27.
Licence to practice clinical laboratory medicine
(1)

The Board may grant a licence in the Form VII set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules (sub. leg), to a medical practitioner to practise private clinical laboratory medicine if such practitioner is both eligible under rule 3 and a pathologist.
(2)

The Board shall publish annually in the Gazette a list of licensed private clinical laboratories.
28.
Saving
(1)

Subject to paragraphs 2 and 3, any registered medical practitioner who was operating a private clinical laboratory before the commencement of these Rules may, notwithstanding rule 29(1)(b), continue to operate.
(2)

A practitioner referred to in paragraph (1) shall make application in the Form VI set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules (sub. leg), within three months of such commencement for a licence under rule 27.
(3)

Where the Board refuses a licence applied for under this rule the practitioner concerned shall cease from the date of such refusal to operate the private clinical laboratory concerned.
29.
Requirements for clinical laboratories
(1)

A clinical laboratory shall—

(a)

conform to the standards stipulated in the Fourth Schedule;
(b)

be approved by the Board before starting to function as such;
(c)

be at all times supervised by a pathologist.
(2)

The Board may inspect any premises used as a clinical laboratory at any reasonable time.
(3)

Any person who hinders or obstructs an officer of the Board acting in the course of his duty under paragraph (2) shall be guilty of an offence.
30.
Investigations carried out in clinical laboratory medicine

A general or single discipline pathologist, a general practitioner and a medical laboratory technician may respectively undertake such investigations in clinical laboratory medicine as are set out in rule 17(3) and Fourth Schedule.
31.
Duties of a practitioner operating a clinical laboratory

A medical practitioner operating a clinical laboratory—

(a)

shall provide diagnostic aid services for the community by meeting the needs of hospitals, medical and dental practitioners and other health services and in so doing he may monitor individual patients, when requested to do so, by providing appropriate laboratory control of therapy;
(b)

shall provide consultant advisory service in all aspects of laboratory investigations, including the interpretation of results and shall advise on any further appropriate investigations;
(c)

shall collaborate in systematic education and training members for all members of laboratory staff;
(d)

may collaborate in the development, study and laboratory control of new methods of treatment, whilst adhering to the laid down medical ethics;
(e)

may provide laboratory facilities for and advice on approved research projects undertaken by clinicians;
(f)

may undertake basic or applied research on pathology problems.
32.
Fees

A private practitioner in laboratory medicine may charge fees in accordance with the Board's prescribed fees in private laboratory medicine.
33.
Offences

Any person who contravenes any of the provisions of this Part shall be guilty of an offence.
PART VIII – PRIVATE CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL
34.
Licence to practice clinical radiological medicine
(1)

The Board may grant a licence in Form VII set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules (sub. leg), to a medical practitioner to engage in private practice in clinical radiological medicine if such practitioner is both eligible under rule 3 and a radiologist.
(2)

The Board shall publish annually in the Gazette a list of licensed private clinical radiological laboratories.
35.
Savings
(1)

Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), a registered medical practitioner who was operating a private clinical radiological laboratory, other than a laboratory providing only screening facilities before the commencement of these rules may, notwithstanding rule 34, continue to operate.
(2)

A practitioner referred to in paragraph (1) shall make an application in Form VI set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, 1978, within three months of such commencement for a licence under rule 34.
(3)

Where the Board refuses a licence applied for under this rule the practitioner concerned shall cease from the date of such refusal to operate the private clinical radiological laboratory concerned.
36.
Requirements for a clinical radiological laboratory

A clinical radiological laboratory shall—

(a)

conform to the standards stipulated in the Fifth Schedule;
(b)

be approved by the Board before starting function as such;
(c)

be at all times supervised by a radiologist;
(d)

keep an accurate record of all clinical radiological examinations undertaken by it.
37.
Undertaking of operations in a clinical radiological laboratory
(1)

A radiologist, general practitioner, radiographer or radiographic film processor may undertake such operations in a clinical radiological laboratory as may from time to time be specified by the Board in guidelines to be issued by it.
(2)

A practitioner operating a clinical radiological laboratory shall carry out radiological examinations only at the request of a registered medical or dental practitioner or a practitioner who is licenced under section 15 of the Act.
38.
Duties of the owner of a clinical radiological laboratory
(1)

The owner and the management of a clinical radiological laboratory shall ensure that all staff and the public are protected from the hazards of radiation and that staff comply with the provisions of the Fifth Schedule.
(2)

All staff employed in radiation work shall undergo periodical medical examination at least once in every two years and a certificate issued.
39.
Screening facilties
(1)

No clinical radiological laboratory which provides only screening facilities shall be licensed under these Rules.
(2)

Any person who publicly offers or advertises screening facilities shall be guilty of an offence and liable to a fine not exceeding five thousand shillings or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to both such fine and imprisonment.
40.
Fees

A private practitioner in radiological work may charge fees in accordance with the Board's prescribed fees in respect of such.
PART IX – MISCELLANEOUS
41.
Board to prescribe fees
(1)

The Board shall prescribe the fees to be charged for visits, referrals and consultations in general practice and specialist practice.
(2)

A receipt shall be issued for any fee charged for any medical or dental services rendered, including laboratory and radiological services.
(3)

The Board shall have powers to arbitrate in all complaints regarding fees in private practice.
42.
Penalties

Where a person is guilty of an offence under these rules for which no penalty is expressly provided he shall be liable to a fine not exceeding two thousand shillings.
43.
Legal proceedings, etc.

Whether or not proceedings are brought against any person for an offence under these rules the Board may, where it is satisfied that there has been a contravention of any of these Rules or of the conditions of any licence granted thereuder, and notwithstanding that such contravention is not an offence, cancel or refuse to renew any licence granted thereunder, and in such case rule 6 shall apply.
44.
Mode of serving notices

Wherever under these Rules, notice is to be served on an applicant or information is to be supplied to him, such notice or letter containing the information shall be sent to him either by registered post or by hand delivery, whichever is convenient.
45.
Postgraduate qualifications

For purposes of these Rules specialist qualifications recognized by the Board shall be as specified in the Sixth Schedule.

FIRST SCHEDULE

[r. 7(3)]

CONSENT TO PRACTISE AS LOCUM

Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

P.O.Box 30016

NAIROBI

.........................................

Dr. .......................... (Reg. No. ........)

P. O. Box ........................................

..................................................

...................................................

Dear Sir,

RE: APPLICATION FOR LOCUM

I acknowledge your letter dated .......................................

.................. Ref. No. ............... applying for a locum

Permission is hereby granted for Dr ........................................

.......................... Reg. No. ................ to work as

a locum in your place of practice during your absence from

............................ to ............................

Yours faithfully,

Registrar/Chairman

SECOND SCHEDULE

[rr. 10(1)(c), 12(1), (14)]

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS
PART A—MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR A GENERAL PRACTITIONER
1.

PREMISES:

(1)

premises should contain the following accommodation—
(a)

Waiting room.
(b)

A consulting room which should be reasonably sound-proofed so that conversations taking place therein are not easily audible outside the consulting room.
(c)

An examination room which should be either a separate room or a curtained-off part of a consulting room.
(d)

A treatment room in which such procedures as the giving of medications and the carrying out of minor surgical operations can be done.
(e)

Adequate toilet facilities.
3.

STOCKING OF DRUGS
(1)

The practitioner should attempt to keep in his premises a stock of those essential drugs which he considers should be administered to his patients in his premises and especially if his practice is not in a location where there may be a dispensing pharmacy. The range of drugs that he should have is wide, but he ought to have at least the following—

Injections of analgesics (for example, pethidine, morphine, etc.); antibiotics, antihistamines, bronchodilators, antiemetics, antispamodics, local anaesthetics and corticosteroids. For the purpose of administering injections, he should have disposable syringes and needles and surgical spirit.
(2)

Further the doctor should provide himself with a bag which he can carry with him when visiting patients, when travelling or to be available for him to use whenever his services may be needed. This bag should contain as a minimum the following—

Such drugs as injections of analgesics, antibiotics, brochodilators, tranquilisers, local anaesthetics, antispasmodics, antiemetics, oral preparations such as antipyretics, analgesics, gastrointestinal sedatives, antidiarrhoeais, antihistamines, brochodilators, antibiotics, muscle relaxants, etc.
(3)

For the purpose of the doctor's bag, it is now the practice to carry disposable syringes and needles rather than the old steel and glass syringes which require sterilization. The bag will be adequately furnished if it carries a supply of 2 ml disposable syringes and 25 g (1 in) and 21 g (l1/2 in) disposable needles. It is also convenient to carry strips of spirit swabs rather than carrying a supply of surgical spirit and pieces of cotton wool. Practitioners shall take steps to destroy all disposable equipment to avoid their possible use.
4.

APPROVED DESCRIPTION OF NAME

"DR ................................... MBBS BDS"

MEDICAL PRACTITIONER /DENTIST/CLINICAL LABORATORY/

CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL LABORATORY.

"DR./MR............................. MBBS, DCH,

MRCP, FRCS, M.MED., FRCR* etc.

SPECIALIST* PHYSICIAN, PAEDIATRICIAN , DERMATOLOGIST,

ANAESTHETIST, RADIOLOGIST, PSYCHIATRIST,

PATHOLOGIST, OBSTETRICIAN AND GYNAECOLOGIST,

SURGEON (*ORTHOPAEDIC, UROLOGIST, NEUROSURGEON,

THORACIC, PLASTIC, OPHTHALMOLOGY, ENT) etc.

*Delete where not applicable
PART B - MINIMUM REQUIREMENT FOR A DENTAL SURGERY
1.

WAITING ROOM: With basic furniture, telephone. etc.

2.

LABORATORY /WORKSHOP:

(a) Basic Laboratory Requirement

1.

Investing flasks,
2.

Press and clamp,
3.

Polishing motor,
4.

Laboratory motor and hand piece,
5.

Bunsen Burner,
6.

Pliers, wax knife, etc.,
7.

Denture materials,
8.

Plaster for models,
9.

Model trimmer,
10.

Polishing brushes, cone felt, etc.

(b) Basic Requirements in filling Materials

1.

Amalgams
2.

Dental cements;

(i) Zinc oxide Engenel
(ii) Zinc and copper phosphates
(iii) Calcium hydroxides
(iv) Silicate and silioophosphate cements
(v) Filling resins
3.

TOILET: —with wash basin and water borne sanitation.
4.

SURGERY: —composed of the following basic essentials—

(i) dental unit with low and high speed drills which are water cooled.
(ii) wash-basin with running water
(iii) sterilizer unit
(iv) cabinet with basic dental instruments
(v) basic drugs and medicaments used in dentistry including antimicrobials, corticosteroids, anelgesics, haemostatic and anaesthetic drugs, in addition to antiseptics and disinfectants;
(vi) lockable cabinet, containing essential emergency drugs.
(vii) emergency oxygen cylinder
(viii) cabinet for patients' records and card system.
5.

INTRAORAL RADIOLOGICAL UNIT

THIRD SCHEDULE

[r. 15(1)]

RETURN OF NOTIFIABLE INFECTIOUS DISEASES

The following diseases are notified on Med. 25 Forms. These forms are obtainable from Central Medical Stores or any government medical institution.

1.

Cholera
2.

Severe diarrhoeal diseases
3.

Plague (human)
4.

Plague (rodent)
5.

Smallpox (Variola major)
6.

Smallpox (Variola minor)
7.

Yellow fever.
8.

Acute poliomyelitis
9.

Anthrax
10.

Cerebro-spinal fever (meningococcal meningitis)
11.

Diphtheria
12.

Injective hapatitis
13.

Rabies
14.

Trypanosomiasis
15.

Tuberculosis (all forms)
16.

Malaria S.T. (in high altitude areas)
17.

Sexually transmitted diseases

FOURTH SCHEDULE

[rr. 27, 29]

MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR A CLINICAL LABORATORY
1.

CATEGORIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF PATHOLOGISTS:

(a) General Pathologist:

(i) This is a specialist whose basic training has covered all the disciplines of clinical laboratory medicine and who ultimately has attained a recognisable higher qualification in any one or all other disciplines.
(ii) General pathologists shall run laboratories that carry out the following investigations—
1.

Morbid anatomy, histopathology and cytology
2.

Haematology and blood transfusion
3.

Clinical chemistry
4.

Medical microbiology and parasitology
5.

Immunopathology
6.

Forensic pathology
7.

Other allied laboratory investigations.

(b) Single Discipline Pathologist:

This shall be a medically qualified person whose training shall not have covered all the disciplines of clinical laboratory medicine but who shall be a holder of a postgraduate qualification in only one discipline. He shall practise only in his particular discipline of specialization.

(c) Categories of Pathology Laboratories:

For purposes of the practice of clinical laboratory medicine, the following categories of laboratories shall be recognized—

(i) Government hospitals and local authority laboratories;
(ii) Non-profit making missionary hospital laboratories;
(iii) Non-government or private hospital laboratories which which charge economical fees;
(iv) Private clinical laboratories not attached to hospitals;
(v) Nursing home laboratories;
(vi) Other non-profit making laboratories.
2.

MINIMUM FACILITIES FOR A PRIVATE CLINICAL LABORATORY (r. 29)

(i) A minimum of any three of the following disciplines should be offered—
1.

Haematology and Blood Transfusion
2.

Medical Microbiology and Parasitology
3.

Olinical Chemistry
4.

Morbid anatomy, Histopathology and Cytology

(ii) STAFF:
1.

At least one pathologist.
2.

At least one qualified technologist for each of the disciplines.

(iii) PHYSICAL FACILITIES:
1.

Waiting room.
2.

Specimen collection room with a couch.
3.

Toilet facilities.
4.

Adequate laboratory space dictated by activities.

(iv)

SAFETY REQUIREMENTS:
1.

Autoclave for sterilization of specimens before disposal.
2.

Fire fighting equipment.
3.

Sinks with both cold and hot water.

(v)

EQUIPMENT:
1.

At least one microscope.
2.

Refrigerator.
3.

Incubator.
4.

Centrifuge.
5.

Haemoglobinometer.
6.

Counting chamber.
7.

E.S.R. tube.
8.

Disposable syringes and needles.
9.

Calorimeter.
10.

Water bath.
11.

Still.
12.

Burners.
13.

Electrophoresis tank.
14.

Necessary laboratory glassware.
15.

Chemical balance.

(iv)

REAGENTS AND CHEMICALS:

There should he minimum reagents and chemicals to enable a confirmatory diagnosis to be reached in each of the disciplines offered.

(vii)

DOCUMENTATION:

All specimens must be recorded in a register. Such registration should show the following: Date, Patient's name, attending doctor's name, nature of the specimen and tests requested.

FIFTH SCHEDULE

[r. 36]

REQUIREMENTS FOR A CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL LABORATORY
1.

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR A CLINICAL RADIOLOGICAL LABORATORY

For the purpose of considering radiological protection facilities the following should be adopted as a general guide—

LEVEL 0—Clinics and health stations operated by a nurse or medical assistant without any direct medical supervision—No radiological facility required.

LEVEL 1—Small clinics, health stations or general practices under supervision of a general practitioner who can undertake emergency work and refer patients to other levels—radiography only for chest, fractures (mainly extremities), and in exceptional cases plain abdomen necessary. No fluoroscopy should be undertaken.

LEVEL 2—District Hospitals or rural hospitals staffed by a small number of doctors and undertaking general medical care and minor surgery, some private hospitals, clinics and non-profit making hospitals may be included in this group—

radiographic examinations required include chest, simple abdomen, fractures, and possibly some fluoroscopic examinations.

LEVEL 3—Medium sized regional provincial hospital that undertakes routine hospital work such as general medical care and routine surgery including abdominal surgery. The medical staff should include specialists in main fields as defined in these Rules.

All general radiographic work is needed which would include some special examinations e.g. tomography, angiography, urography, etc.

LEVEL 4 & 5-Large central and general hospitals including teaching hospitals where all types of radiological procedures are required.
2.

FOR A PROPERLY ORGANIZED RADIATION PROTECTION PROGRAMME TO SUCCEED, it is strongly recommended that—
(1)

In hospitals at levels 3, 4 and 5, all x-ray diagnostic examinations should be carried out by the diagnostic radiology department.
(2)

Even when an x-ray equipment is installed in other departments the head of the radiology department should have responsibility for radiological aspects of any examination performed.
(3)

Level 1 refers to a rural or remote area where no other radiological service is available and the supervision is that of a general practitioner with limited skill in radiology. A fully qualified radiographer may not be available at this level and the x-ray equipment may be operated by a nurse or laboratory technician. Such a nurse or technician should have had additional training in radiography.
(4)

In areas where a more comprehensive radiological service is available, no attempt should be made to provide a level 1 radiological service.
3.

PREMISES:
(1)

The x-ray room should provide adequate radiation protection for people outside the room, who may have no knowledge of radiation or radiation requirements.
(2)

The basic x-ray room for general purposes should be about 6 x 4 x 3 metres in size, with wall thickness in all directions of 2 mm. lead equivalent.
(3)

The doors, the darkroom hatch, and covers for services and other instructions through the wall should have the same lead equivalent protection.
(4)

Windows should be at least 2 metres from the ground outside the x-ray room and 1.6 metres from the floor level of the room.
(5)

If the control panel is within the x-ray room, the protective shield should be positioned such that neither "once scattered" radiation nor direct radiation can pass round the edge of the shield from any part of the room where x-ray procedures are carried out.
(6)

The darkroom should be at least 6 sq. meters in area.
(7)

There should be at least two protected changing cubicles of 1.5 sq. metres minimum size, preferably outside the x-ray room.
(8)

If ordinary building material are used, they should be thick enough e.g. in the range 70.25 KV, 15 cm of concrete or 2 brick with plaster is sufficient.
(9)

However, if a prefabricated wood or metal building is being planned, it will need lead lining, preferably supported by plywood to prevent sagging. (2mm. lead sheet is adequate).
(10)

Converting an old bulding for an x-ray room will need a review by a radiation protection expert.
4.

CHOICE OF X-RAY EQUIPMENT:
(1)

The x-ray equipment should be adequate for its purposes e.g. at level 1 of radiological care, a good stationary x-ray tube and generator should be employed. Improvisation of a mobile machine in an old room used for other purposes should not be tolerated under any circumstances.
(2)

For routine general radiography, necessary ancillary apparatus should be provided e.g. chest stand and a stationary couch with grid and film x-ray.
(3)

To avoid mains voltage drops, the power supply to an x-ray unit should be separated from, say that for lifts, etc.
(4)

Where power supplies are particularly unreliable, battery operated or condenser discharge equipment should be used.
(5)

An x-ray tube head of lower rating than that of generator should be installed.
(6)

For exposure controls, meters giving clear indication of voltage, current, and milliampere-seconds at all times are required.
(7)

The timing device must be capable of making sufficiently short exposures (say down to 0.04 sec.) must terminate a present exposure, and must be "dead man" type.
(8)

All x-ray, fluoroscopic and dental equipment must further meet the protection standards as laid down by the International Commission on Radiation Protection.
(9)

The normal output for radiographic units should lie from 60 KV and above with preferably not less than 50mA. For flouroscopic units without image intensifiers, 75 KV and 2-3mA is the normal order. 3mA should not be exceeded at 100 KV.
5.

SAFETY PROCEDURES:

RADIOGRAPHY
(1)

Staff positions should be behind protective shields preferably outside the ex-ray room providing there is adequate view through a lead glass and communication device for speaking to the patient during exposure.
(2)

During special techniques, where staff need be in the x- room, protective aprons and gloves should be worn.
(3)

Films should be supported mechanically. Beam size shou be reduced to cover by means of light beam diaphrams or variab cones only areas under investigation.

FLUOROSCOPY
(1)

Only essential persons who must wear protective aprons should be present in the room during fluoroscopy.
(2)

The fluoroscopy switch should be spring loaded so that is not left on unnecessarily or accidentally.
(3)

A cumulative timing device that gives an audible warning and finally switches off after a few minutes to restrict the total switch-on time of the equipment.
(4)

A properly darkened room.
(5)

A fluoroscopy switch coupled with the rooms red light.
(6)

If sufficient information can be obtained from radiography alone (e.g. as in chest examinations) then fluoroscopy should not be done.
(7)

There should be effective coning devices.
(8)

With conventional equipment, adequate dark adaptation of at least 15 minutes prior to screening is necessary.

ROOM LAYOUT
(1)

Primary x-ray beam should not fall on the darkroom wall and should not routinely point towards doors or windows.
(2)

Where there is more than one equipment in the same room—

(a)

Only one generator per room should be installed.
(b)

A warning device should be mounted on each x-ray tube and control panel of the generator.
(c)

Adequate protective screen should be provided between each x-ray tube area.
(3)

For special technique such as tomography, angiography, etc. a special room should be provided.
(4)

Record room, offices and waiting room should be provided outside the main x-ray room at all levels.
(5)

Protective screens should be provided for all the positions in which staff are required to be during exposure in the x-ray room.
(6)

Persons required to assist during fluoroscopic procedures should wear a protective apron of at least 0.25 mm lead equivalent.
(7)

The physician performing the fluoroscopic procedures should wear a protective apron of at least 0.25 mm lead equivalent.
(8)

When a new x-ray facility goes into operation, all staff members who at any time may enter the department should be issued with radation monitoring badges.
(9)

Site monitoring during the radiation surveys should be done before commissioning the unit.
(10)

Persons likely to receive three tenths (3/10) of the annual maximum permissible dose should be monitored regularly.
(11)

Radiation personnel should be medically examined on initial appointment and at any time when the exposure levels as indicated personnel monitoring are sufficietly high.

PROTECTION OF THE GENERAL PUBLIC
(1)

Careful attention must be paid to be protection of all areas around, above and below x-ray rooms.
(2)

Apart from adequate protective thickness of walls, floors, ceilings and doors, unprotected windows should not allow the pub outside to be irradiated.
(3)

Stray radiation should not reach the waiting rooms or other occupied areas.
(4)

One patient must not use a curtained corner of an x-ray room to change clothing while another is being radiographed in the same room.
(5)

Separate protected cubicles should be provided preferably outside x-ray room.
(6)

Lead-protected doors must always be closed during x-ray examinations.
(7)

Particular care should be taken to avoid irradiating patients in adjacent beds during mobile radiography.
(8)

Protective clothing should be sworn by parents holding children undergoing x-ray examinations. They should not stand in the path of a primary beam.

SIXTH SCHEDULE

[r. 45]

LIST OF APPROVED SPECIALIST POSTGRADUATE QUALIFICATION

Speciality

Kenya

Foreign Equivalents

1. Anaesthesia ...............

M. Med. (Anaesthesia)

F.F.A.R.C.S., F.F.A.A.R.C.S., M.D. (Anathesia), Dip. Am. Board of Anaesthesiology, etc.

2.Internal Medicine

M.Med. (Medicine)

M.R.C.P. (U.K.), M.R.A.C.P., F.R.C.P. (C), Dip. Am. Board of Int. Medicine, M.D. (Medicine) New Delhi, etc.

3.Obstetrics and Gynaecology

M.Med. (Obs./Gyn.) ..

M.R.C.O.G., F.R.C.S. (o.B.s./ GYN.) M.D. (O.B.S./GYN.), M.R.A.C.O.G., Dip. Am. Board of Obst. and Gynae., etc.

4. Paediatrics

M.Med. (Paediatrics)

M.R.C.P. (U.K.), M.R.A.C., F.R.C.P., (C), Dip. Am. Board of Paediatrics, M.D. (PAED.) New Delhi, etc.

5. Pathology

M.R.C. (Path.), M.D. (Path.) New Delhi, Dip. Am. Board of Pathology, etc.

6. Psychiatry .. .. ..

M.R.C. (Psyc.), M.D. (Psych.) Dip. Am. Board of Psychiatry, etc.

7. Radiology .. . . ..

M.Med. (Radiology) ..

F.R.C.R., M.D. (Radiology), Dip. Am. Board of Radiology, etc.

8. (i) Surgery—General ..

M.Med. (Surgery) ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S. (Canada), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons, M.S. (New Delhi), etc.

(ii) Cardiothoracic Surgery

M.Med. (Surgery)* ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S.(C), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons, m.s.* (New Delhi), etc.

(iii) Neurosurgery

M.Med. (Surgery)* ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S. (C), M.S. (New Delhi), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons, etc.*

(iv) Ophthalmology ..

M.Med. (Ophthalmology) . .

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S. (C), M.S. (New Delhi), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons.*

(v) Orthopaedics and Trauma

M.Med. (Surgery)* ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S. (C), M.S. (New Delhi), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons, etc.*

(vi) Otorhinolaryngology

M.Med. (Surgery)* ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S. (C), M.S. (New Delhi), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons, etc.*

(vii) Plastic Surgery ..

M.Med. (Surgery)* ..

F.R.C.S., F.R.A.C.S., F.R.C.S (C), M.S. (New Delhi), Dip. Am. Board of Surgeons etc.*

9. Dentistry ..

F.D.S.R.C.S., M.D.S. (New Delhi). Cert. Am. Board of Orthodontics, Cert. Am. Board of Endodontics, Cert. Am. Board of Prosthetics, Cert. Am. Board of Periodontology, Cert. Am. Board of Oral and Maxillary facial Surgery, Cert. Am Board of Conservative Dentistry, etc.

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REGISTRATION, LICENSING, ASSESSMENT AND INTERNSHIP) RULES

IN EXERCISE of the powers conferred by rule 29(3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Registration, Licensing, Assessment and Internship) Rules, the Board recognizes the institution in the Schedule as an institution at which internship may be undergone and amends the Schedule to the Rules accordingly.

Schedule

9. Forces Memorial Hospital, Nairobi.

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REGISTRATION, LICENSING, ASSESSMENT AND INTERNSHIP) RULES -RECOGNITION OF INSTITUTIONS FOR INTERNSHIP TRAINING

IN EXERCISE of the powers conferred by rule 29(3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Registration, Licensing, Assessment and Internship) Rules, the Board recognizes the institutions in the Schedule as institutions at which internship may be undergone and amends the Schedule to the Rules accordingly.

SCHEDULE

10.

Embu Provincial General Hospital, Embu
11.

Eldoret District Hospital, Eldoret.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REGISTRATION, LICENSING, ASSESSMENT AND INTERNSHIP) RULES -APPROVED INSTITUTION

IN EXERCISE of the powers conferred by rule 29 (3) of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Registration, Licensing, Assessment and Internship) Rules, the Board recognizes the institution in the Schedule as an institution at which internship in the subject of obstetrics may be undergone and amends the Schedule to the Rules accordingly.

SCHEDULE

[r. 2]

13.

The Mater Misericordiae Hospital (Maternity Department), Nairobi.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Licensing of a private medical institution
4.

Application for a registration
5.

Application for a licence
6.

Conditions for grant of licence
7.

Categorization of private medical institutions
8.

Services at institutions
9.

Refusal to register or licence
10.

Revocation of licence
11.

Inspection of private medical institutions
12.

Responsibility of owner, etc. of private medical institution
13.

Responsibilities of administrators of approved private medical institutions
14.

Revocation of Part IV

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE [r. 7] —

CATEGORIZATION OF APPROVED PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Institutions) Rules and shall come into effect on the 1st April, 2000.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 2.]
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"institution" means a medical institution;

"licence" means a licence to operate a medical institution issued under these Rules;

"medical institution" means premises of a health facility which offers medical or dental services, and where persons suffering from any sickness, injury, or infirmity are given medical, surgical, dental treatment or nursing care, and includes a hospital, a maternity home, a mission hospital, an institutional clinic, a convalescent home, a nursing home, a medical centre, a dispensary, a health centre, a laboratory and other specialized medical institutions other than those licensed under Rule 9 of the Clinic Rules, but does not include hospitals or other medical establishments operated by the Government or by a local authority;

"register" means the register of medical institutions.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 4.]
3.
Licensing of a private medical institution
(1)

The Board may, subject to these Rules, grant a licence for the use of any premises as a medical institution.
(2)

No premises shall be used by any person as a medical institution unless they are registered and licensed for such use by the Board.
(3)

No person shall use the term "hospital" or "nursing home" or any other name that suggests a medical institution in connection with the use of any premises unless the premises are licensed under these Rules.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 5.]
4.
Application for a registration
(1)

A person or organization to operate a medical institution shall submit to the registrar an application in the prescribed form set out in the Medical Practitioners (Form and Fees) Rules, which shall be accompanied by the prescribed registration fee.
(2)

Where the applicant satisfies the Board that the institution meets the requirement for registration, the registrar shall register the institution as an approved medical institution.
(3)

The Board shall issue to every approved medical institution registered under these Rules a certificate of registration in the prescribed form set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules on payment of the prescribed fee.
(4)

The registrar shall keep a register of all private medical institutions.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 6.]
5.
Application for a licence
(1)

An application for a licence to operate a medical institution shall be in the prescribed form set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules, and shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee.
(2)

An application for a license to be issued under these Rules shall be made to the Board on or before the 30th October of each year.
(3)

An annual fees assessment form shall be in the prescribed form set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules.
(4)

A licence to operate an approved medical institution shall be in the prescribed form set out in the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules.
(5)

A licence issued under these Rules shall be granted for a period of one year.
(6)

A licence issued under these Rules shall expire on the 31st December of the year in which it was issued, and may thereafter be renewed annually on payment of the prescribed fee.
(7)

No licence shall be transfered under these Rules.
(8)

A licence issued under these Rules shall be displayed in a conspicuous place at the premises to which the licence relates.
(9)

An application for renewal of licence shall be made under these Rules.
(10)

An application for permission to change the premises to which the licence relates may be made at any time.
(11)

The Board may, on application—

(a)

for renewal of the licence; or
(b)

for change of premises,

request such further relevant information from the applicant as it thinks fit.
(12)

The Board may charge an additional late application fee in respect of applications submitted after the 30th October of any year as specified in sub-rule (2).

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 7.]
6.
Conditions for grant of licence
(1)

No licence shall be granted under these Rules unless the premises and its proposed facilities and equipment are approved by the Board as suitable for the purpose indicated in the application, and the Board is satisfied as to the character and ability of the applicant to run the medical institution.
(2)

An institution shall be registered and licensed as medical institution where—

(a)

the premises medical institution conforms to the description, infrastructure and personnel criteria for the respective category and facility set out in the Schedule;
(b)

the medical officer of health of the county where the premises are located submits a satisfactory report on the premises to the Board;
(c)

the medical practitioners or dentists providing services at the institution is the holder of a valid private practice licence issued under the Act to render medical or dental service at the institution;
(d)

all professional staff working or intending to work in the institution are qualified and are registered by the relevant registering authority as required;
(e)

the quality of health care to be provided at the institution shall be such as to comply with the minimum standards acceptable to the Board.
(3)

For the purposes of this rule, the Board may issue guidelines which guidelines shall be subject to regular review.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 8.]
7.
Categorization of private medical institutions

For purposes of licensing, the Board shall categorize registered approved medical institutions as set out in the Schedule to these Rules, and shall determine the annual fees payable in respect of each category.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 9.]
8.
Services at institutions
(1)

Every licence issued to a medical institution shall specify the nature of the services that may be provided by the institution.
(2)

Sub-rule (1) shall not prevent the carrying out at a medical institution in case of an emergency of any other treatment as may in the opinion of a medical practitioner, be necessary.
(3)

Every licence shall state the maximum number of patients who may be accommodated in the institution at any one time, and may be limited to any particular class or classes of patients.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 10.]
9.
Refusal to register or licence
(1)

Where the owner or managing body of a medical institution does not comply with these Rules, the Board may refuse to register or licence the institution.
(2)

The Board may refuse to renew the licence of a medical institution which is operated in a manner that contravenes any provision of the Act or these Rules.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 11.]
10.
Revocation of licence
(1)

A licence may at any time be revoked by the Board—

(a)

if the licensee wilfuly neglects or refuses to comply with any provision of these Rules or obstructs, impedes, or hinders any person carrying out any duties or responsibilities under the Act and these Rules;
(b)

if in the opinion of the Board, the medical institution is managed in a manner contrary to these Rules or in such a manner that the revocation of the licence is required in the public interest.
(c)

if, after inquiry the Board finds that there has been professional misconduct.
(2)

Where the Board refuses to grant registration, grant or review a licence, or cancels or revokes a licence, it shall inform the applicant or the licensee of its decision and the reasons therefor in writing.
(3)

The proprietor of a medical institution may request the Board to reconsider its decision under sub-rule (2) and the Board may comply accordingly.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 12.]
11.
Inspection of private medical institutions
(1)

All medical institutions shall be subject to inspection by the Board.
(2)

The operator of a medical institution shall submit to the Board once in every six months list of—

(a)

all medical practitioners and dentists in their employment;
(b)

all medical practitioners and dentists who are authorized to use their premises, indicating in each case the authorized place for use as a private clinic.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 13.]
12.
Responsibility of owner, etc. of private medical institution
(1)

It shall be the responsibility of the owner and the managing body of a medical institution to acquaint themselves fully with—

(a)

the qualifications; and
(b)

the professional conduct

of all medical practitioners and dentists working at the medical institution and they shall consult the Board in case of any doubt.
(2)

The owner and the managing body of a medical institution, as well as the medical practitioner or dentist concerned, shall be responsible for any instance of professional misconduct occurring within the premises about which they know or ought reasonably to have known.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 14.]
13.
Responsibilities of administrators of approved private medical institutions

The administrators of medical institutions shall ensure that no medical practitioners or dentists working there engages in private practice outside the areas of specialization and competence for which they have been licensed except—

(a)

in cases of emergency; or
(b)

in cases where practitioners with the requisite specializations are not reasonably available.

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 15.]
14.
Revocation of Part IV

Part IV of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Private Practice) Rules is revoked.

SCHEDULE

[r. 7]

CATEGORIZATION OF APPROVED PRIVATE MEDICAL INSTITUTIONS

[L.N. 3/2017, r. 16.]

Level 1

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

i. Community Health Facility

Health facility that focuses on-a) ensuring individuals, households andcommunities carry out appropriate healthy behaviours; andb) recognition of signs and symptoms of conditions that need to be managed at other levels of the system.

Level 2

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

i. Medical Clinic

A health facility for—(a) treating outpatients; and

(a) At least three rooms being -(i) a reception;

(a) At least one health practitioner being—

(b) intended for use for not more than 12 hours to provide services including but not limited to -(i) basic outpatient services;(ii) emergency maternity services;(iii) basic laboratory services;(iv) minor surgical procedures; and(v) outreach services

(ii) a consulting room; and(iii) a treatment room or observation;(b) a procedure room, if procedures are done at the facility;(c) a First Aid Kit;(d) a Health Information Management System;(e) a waste management system;(f) proof of contract with a licensed waste disposal company

(i) a medical specialist(ii) a general practitioner;(iii) a clinical officer;(iv) a registered nurse; or(v) one medical assistant;(b) one medical assistant;(c) staff trained in First Aid and basic life support

ii. Dental Clinic

An outpatient facility for the treatment of dental related problems.(i) a reception.(ii) a consulting room; and(iii) a treatment room or observation;

(a) At least three rooms being—(b) Dental Assistant or Nurse or Community Oral Health Office.(i) the promotion of oral health;(ii) the prevention, diagnosis and treatment of oral diseases;(iii) the rehabilitation of oral structures;(c) a specialized dental chair with accessories, in the case of a comprehensive clinic-Unit;(d) basic normal clinic chair;(e) all equipment for extraction and minor oral surgery, filing; and(f) ART instruments, including a scaler, with effective infection control.

(a) Dentist; and(b) A sterilization room containing the prescribed equipment used by the dental practitioner for—

iii. Dispensary/Faith-Based Dispensary

A health facility for—(a) outpatient services;(b) immunization;(c) child health;(d) screening for communicable conditions;(e) prevention mother to child HIV transmission;(f) institutional screening for NCDS;(g) integrated vector management;(h) good hygiene practices;(i) HIV and STI prevention;(j) Port health;(k) control and prevention of neglected tropical diseases;(l) community management of violence and injuries;

(a) Infrastructure and equipment to offer—(i) basic outpatient services;(ii) emergency maternity services;(iii) basic laboratory services;(iv) minor surgical procedures;(v) outreach services;(v) outreach services

At least—(a) two general Clinical Officers;(b) four Kenya Enrolled Community Health Nurses;(c) two Kenya Registered Community Health Nurses;(d) two Enrolled Nurses;(e) one Pharmaceutical technologist;(f) one orthopaedic technologist;(g) one General physiotherapist;(h) two occupational therapist;(i) two community oral health officers;(j) two health promotion officers;

(m) pre-hospital care;(n) emergency maternity services;(o) work place health and safety services;(p) food quality and safety services;(q) reproductive health services;(r) limited laboratory services;(s) health promotion;(t) safe water, sanitation and hygiene;(u) nutrition services;(v) pollution control services;(w) substance abuse services;(x) micronutrient deficiency control;(y) housing school health;(z) food fortification advocacy(aa) Population Management services; and

(k) one medical social worker;(l) two Clerks;(m) one health records information management officer;(n) two medical laboratory technologists;(o) two nutrition & deistic technologists;(p) one nutrition & dietic technician(q) one public health officer;(r) two Public Health Technicians; and(s) four support staff.

iv. Mobile Clinic

Health facility that operates through migration of the clinics from one area to another, with each mobile clinic linked to a static health facility from where it operates beyond the reach of the static facility which provides staffing, administrative services and storage of supplies and other necessary needs and provides—(a) maternity services;

(a) Infrastructure and equipment to offer—(i) basic outpatient services;(ii) emergency maternity services;(iii) basic laboratory services;

(a) two general clinical] officers;(b) four Kenya Enrolled Community Health Nurses;(c) two Kenya Registered Community Health Nurses; and

(b) primary care services;(c) curative, MCH/FP services;(d) emergency services; and(e) specific services for-(i) HIV, TB, Malaria, CA screening services;(ii) referral services;(iii) defaulter tracing; and(iv) neglected tropical conditions.

(iv) minor surgical procedures;(v) outreach services

(d) Enrolled Nurses.

v. Eye Clinic

A health facility for the treatment of outpatient eye clients (including optical) for not more than twelve hours.

(a) At least three rooms being—(i) a reception;(ii) a consulting room; and(iii) a treatment room or observation;(b) a procedure room, if procedures are done at the facility;(c) a health information management system;(d) a First Aid kit;(e) a waste management system; and(f) proof of contract with a licensed waste disposal company.

(a) an ophthalmic nurse;(b) an ophthalmic clinical officer; or(c) ophthalmologist who exclusively offers eye care services

Level 3

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

i. Basic Health Centre/Faith-Based Basic Centre

A health facility that has been Gazetted as a health centre owned by the MOH or other governmental organization or licensed to a faith based organization, community or registered organization including a school, company, church, mosque, NGO, or humanitarian organization, that offers many ambulatory health services and generally offer preventive and curative services appropriate to local needs, including -(a) curative services;(b) outpatient services;(c) inpatient services;(d) referral services;(e) additional outpatient care, largely limited to minor surgery on outpatient basis;(f) limited emergency inpatient services for emergency inpatients including patients, awaiting referral and on twelve hours observation;(g) limited oral health services;(h) individual health education;

At least -(a) on two acreas of land;(b) three consultation rooms;(c) one treatment room;(d) one minor theatre at outpatients;(e) one records room;(f) inpatient bed capacity of not more than (16) sixteen beds being four beds each for the male ward, female ward and maternity ward;(g) one drugs store;(h) one general store;(i) one laboratory room;(j) one labour ward with capacity of two;(k) one delivery room;(l) one community services room;(m) a supply services unit with—(i) a kitchen; and(ii) laundry; Health Information Systems(n) staff housing for at least two members of staff;(o) one WC;(p) one simple incinerator;(q) a placenta pit;(r) one motorcycle;(s) communication equipment;(t) water storage for roof catchment;(u) fence and gate;(v) composite pit;

(a) staff who report to the medical or clinical officer in-charge;(b) public health officers and technicians, who, may have an office at the health centre, are deployed to a geographical area not a health unit and report to the district public health;(c) six general clinical officers;(d) one graduate clinical officer;(e) one specialized clinical officer or clinical officer ENT;(f) one clinical officer lung and skin;(g) one clinical officer paediatrics;(h) one clinical officer reproductive health;(i) two dental nurses;(j) twelve Kenya Enrolled Community Health Nurses;(k) eight Kenya Registered Community Health Nurses;(l) two Kenya Registered Nurses;(m) four Enrolled Nurse;(n) six registered Midwives;(o) one Sign Language nurse;(p) one Pharmacist;(q) four pharmaceutical technologists(r) two plaster Technicians or technologists;

(i) maternity services for normal deliveries;(j) antenatal care (ANC);(k) family planning (FP) services;(l) immunization services; and(m) routine and specific laboratory services, including malaria; smear test for TB; HIV testing.

(s) one orthopaedic Technologist;(t) three general physiotherapists;(u) three occupational therapists;(v) one dental officer;(w) two dental technologists;(x) four Community Oral Health Officers;(y) four health promotion office;(z) two Medical Social Workers;(aa) one health administrative officer;(bb) four clerks;(cc) one supply chain assistant;(dd) four health records information management officers;(ee) one ICT officer;(ff) two medical engineering technicians;(gg) ten medical laboratory technologists(hh) two nutrition and dietetic officers;(ii) one nutrition and dietetic technician;(jj) two public health officers;(kk) two public health technicians;(ll) two cooks;(mm) four drivers;(nn) ten support staff;(oo) two mortuary attendants; and(pp) four security officers.

ii. Comprehensive Health Centre/Faith-Based Comprehensive Centre

A health facility that -(a) focuses on appropriate preventive and promotive care as KEPH interventions;(b) provides -(i) curative services;(ii) outpatient services;(iii) inpatient services;(iv) referral services;(v) additional outpatient care, largely limited to minor surgery on outpatient basis;

At least-(a) on two acres of land;(b) three consultation rooms;(c) one treatment room;(d) one minor theatre at outpatients;(e) one records room;(f) supply services unit with -(i) kitchen;(ii) laundry;

At least -(a) two medical officers;(b) six general clinical officers;(c) one graduate clinical officer;(d) one clinical officer ENT;(e) one clinical officer Lung and Skin;(f) one clinical officer paediatrics;

(vi) limited emergency inpatient services for emergency inpatients including patients, awaiting referral and on twelve hours observation;(vii) limited oral health services;(viii) individual health education;(ix) maternity services for normal deliveries;(x) caesarian section services,(xi) antenatal care (ANC);(xii) family planning (FB) services;(xiii) immunization services;(xiv) routine and specific laboratory services, including malaria; smear test for TB HIV testing;(xv) blood transfusion services:(xvi) radiologic and imaging services; and(xvii) surgical procedures.

(g) health information management systems;(h) inpatient bed capacity of not more than twenty four beds being six beds each for the male ward, female ward, paediatric ward and maternity ward;(i) one drug store;(j) one general store;(k) one laboratory room;(l) one labour ward with capacity of two;(m) a delivery room;(n) a community services room;(o) maternity theatre;(p) blood transfusion facilities;(q) basic radiological and imaging facilities;(r) surgical procedures facilities;(s) school health programs;(t) Central Sterilization Services Department;(u) staff housing for at least two;(v) one WC;(w) a simple incinerator;(x) one placenta pit;(y) one motorcycle;(z) communication equipment;(aa) water storage for roof catchment;(bb) composite pit;(cc) and fence and gate.

(g) one clinical officer reproductive Health;(h) Two dental nurses;(i) twelve Kenya Enrolled Community Health Nurses;(j) eight Kenya Registered Community Health Nurses;(k) two Kenya Registered Nurses;(l) four Enrolled Nurses;(m) six registered midwives;(n) one Sign Language Nurse;(o) One pharmacist;(p) four pharmaceutical technologists;(q) two Plaster Technicians or Technologists;(r) one orthopaedic technologist;(s) three general physiotherapists;(t) three occupational therapists;(u) one dental officer;(v) Two dental technologists;(w) four Community Oral Health Officers;(x) four health promotion officers;(y) two medical social workers;(z) one health administrative officer;(aa) four clerks;(bb) one supply chain assistant;(cc) four health records information management officers;(dd) one ICT officer;

(ee) two medical engineering technicians;(ff) ten medical laboratory technologists;(gg) two nutrition and dietetic officer;(hh) one nutrition and dietetic technician;(ii) two public health officers;(jj) two public health technicians;(kk) two cooks;(ll) four drivers;(mm) ten support staff;(nn) two mortuary attendants; and(oo) four security officers.

iii. Medical or Dental Centre

An outpatient facility including group with no inpatient beds that offer -(a) medical or dental consultation services;(b) basic laboratory services;(c) Pharmacy services;(d) Medical or dental procedures;(e) radiological services.

At least four rooms being -(i) a reception;(ii) two consulting rooms; and(iii) treatment room or observation;(iv) a common waiting area with reception area;(b) triage room;(c) at least one procedure room;(d) a health information management(e) a First Aid Kit;(f) waste management system;(g) proof of contract with a licensed waste disposal company.

(a) at least one resident specialist being -(i) doctor;(ii) medical officer;(iii) dentist;(iv) clinical officer; or(v) nursing practitioner in charge of patient care;(c) triage nurse or dental assistant;(d) pathologist or laboratory technologist in charge of the laboratory;(e) pharmacist or pharmaceutical technologist in charge of the pharmacy; and(f) a receptionist

iv. Funeral Homes Stand-Alone

A facility where -(a) dead bodies are stored; and(b) undergo autopsy before cremation or burial;(c) additional services including -(i) the sale of coffins;(ii) cremation;(iii) burial;(iv) transportation of bodies, may be provided.

At least -(a) one pathologist; and(b) morgue attendant.

Level 3A

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

i. Nursing Home or Cottage Hospital

A health facility that is licensed to a residentpractitioner to offer outpatient and inpatient services.

(a) wards with twelve to forty nine inpatient bed capacity:(b) one laboratory;(c) one kitchen;(d) a laundry; and(e) may have maternity beds and labour ward.

(a) the licensed resident practitioner being -(i) a nurse(ii) a clinical officer;(iii) a medical officer; or(iv) a specialist;(b) a visiting medical officer or specialist.

ii. Maternity Home

A health facility that is licensed to a resident practitioner to offer outpatient and inpatient services, exclusively, for maternity clients. i.e. ANC, delivery and newbord care, and postnatal services.

(a) wards with six to forty eight inpatient bed capacity; in multiples of six;(b) one labour ward;(c) one laboratory;(d) a kitchen;(e) a laundry; and(f) may have a theatre.

(a) the licensed resident practitioner being -(i) a nurse;(ii) a clinical officer;(iii) a medical officer ;or(iv) specialist;(b) a visiting medical officer or specialist.

Level 4

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

1. Hospital Level 4/Internship Training Centre/County Hospital/Faith Based Hospital

A health facility that -(a) offers services for elimination of communicable diseases;

At least -(a) on five acres of land; or office space of approximately 2,500 sq. metres

At least -(a) sixteen medical officers;(b) two anesthesiologists;(c) two general surgeon;

(b) screening for animal transmitted conditions;(c) provides -(i) Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART);(ii) Anti Restro-Viral (ARV) prophylaxis for children born of HIV+ve mothers;(d) male circumcision;(e) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) management;(f) screening for -(i) cervical cancer for all women in the reproductive age group; and(ii) breast cancer screening for women;(g) prostate examination for men;(h) evacuation services for injuries;(i) disaster risk reduction interventions;(j) facility disaster response planning;(k) disaster management;(l) provides essential services;(m) vaccination for yellow fever, tetanus and rabies;(n) management of surgical emergencies including trauma care;(o) advanced life support;(p) management of pregnancy complications;(q) management of abnormal pregnancies;(r) management of pre-term labour;(s) caesarean section;(t) radiology services;(u) outpatient services of outpatient turnover of more than two hundred and fifty;(v) emergency operations;(w) general operations;(x) specialized operations;(y) management of medical, surgical, pediatric and gynecological in-patients;(z) laboratory services;(aa) specialized therapy services;(bb) HIV/AIDS management;(cc) tuberculosis management;

(a) for every clinical department appropriate space for -(i) waiting bays;(ii) doctors' rooms;(iii) nursing station;(iv) Head of department office;(v) nurse in-charge office;(vi) intern's office;(vii) cloak rooms for staff and clients;(viii) staff lounge room;(ix) medical material store room;(x) sluice room;(xi) drug cabinet;(xii) changing rooms with locker; and(xiii) laminar flow air system for operating theatres;(b) general equipment including -(i) defibrillator;(ii) ventilator;(iii) modern communication on system and ICT infrastructure;(iv) automation in all areas;(v) fire-fighting equipment;(vi) standby generators; and(vii) UPS back ups;(c) catering and laundry maintenance;(d) biomedical engineering;(e) general cleaning services; and(f) infection control infrastructure;(g) laboratory services for -(i) Hepatitis B and C tests;(ii) ELISA tests;(iii) Widal tests;(iv) CD 4 count;(v) liver function tests;(vi) renal function tests;(vii) blood gases;(viii) Cholesterol tests (Total/Differential);(ix) semen analysis;(x) tumor markers (PSA, CA 125);(xi) Bence Jones protein;(xii) cytology;(xiii) biopsy examinations;(xiv) micro nutrient tests;(xv) cerebrospinal(xvi) stool testing including for polio;

(d) one orthopaedic surgeon;(e) one ENT surgeon;(f) two Obs/Gyne specialist;(g) one neonatologist;(h) one nephrologist;(i) one neurologist;(j) one ophthalmologist;(k) one optometrist;(l) one dermatologists;(m) two Paeditricians;(n) one pathologist;(o) two psychiatrists;(p) two radiologists;(q) two specialist physician (internist);(r) one public health;(t) fourteen graduate clinical officers;(u) two specialized clinical officers;(v) four clinical officer lung & skin;(w) four Ophthalmology or cataract surgeons;(x) two clinical officers paediatrics;(y) two clinical officers reproductive health;(z) One clinical officer dermatology or venereology;(aa) one clinical officer orthopaedics;(bb) six clinical officers anaesthetists;(cc) one clinical officer psychiatry/mental health;(dd) one clinical officer oncology/palliative Care;(ee) four Nurses;(ff) eight dental nurses;(gg) one hundred Kenya Enrolled Community Health nurses;(hh) fifty Kenya Registered Community Health nurses;(ii) twenty Kenya Registered nurses;(jj) six Enrolled Nurses;(kk) two oncology Nurses;(ll) two ophthalmic nurses;(mm) two paediatric nurses;(nn) four palliative care nurses;(oo) six pscychiatrist nurses;(pp) twenty registered midwives;

(dd) Palliative care;(ee) rehabilitative services;(ff) physiotherapy; and(gg) speech and hearing therapy.

(xvii) lung function testing;(xviii) lipid profiling;(xix) fecal occult blood testing for bowel cancers; and(xx) screening for sickle cell anemia;(d) specialized therapy services;(e) out-patient services;(f) in-patient services with a bed capacity that does not exceed one hundred and fifty being thirty bed ward each for the male ward, female ward, pediatric ward, antenatal ward and postnatal ward; or patient turn-over of not less than 250 per day.(g) radiological and imaging services including -(i) Ultra Sound scan;(ii) X-ray;(iii) endoscopy;(iv) laparoscopy;(g) general surgical procedures theater;(h) mortuary services;(i) autopsy services;(j) one operating theatre;(k) radiology unit with x-ray;(l) specialist clinics;(m) MRI Machine;(n) CT scan machine;(o) dialysis machine;(p) endoscopy & colonscopy unit;(q) mammography machine;(r) ultra sound machine;(s) one waiting room;(t) four consultation rooms;(u) one registration room;(v) one injection room;(w) one plaster room;(x) one minor theatre;(y) at least two dental unit rooms with a sterilization room;(z) one ENT services room;(aa) one laboratory room;(bb) MCH/FP unit with -(i) one immunization services room;(ii) one FP coordination room;(iii) one antenatal coordination room;

(qq) one Sign Language nurses;(rr) ten theater nurses;(ss) six anaesthetist nurses;(tt) ten Accidents &(pp) twenty registered midwives;(qq) one Sign Language nurses;(rr) ten theater nurses;(ss) six anaesthetist nurses;(tt) ten Accidents & Emergency nurses;(uu) four Pharmacists;(vv) two clinical pharmacists;(ww) eight pharmaceutical technologists;(xx) four plaster technicians technologists;(yy) three orthopaedic technologists;(zz) six general physiotherapists;(aaa) one BSc Physiotherapist;(bbb) two specialized physiotherapists;(ccc) ten occupational therapists;(ddd) one clinical psychologists;(eee) four dental officers;(fff) one oromaxillofacial surgeon;(ggg) two paediatric dentist;(hhh) six dental technologists;(iii) two community oral health officers;(jjj) six general radiographer;(kkk) one ultrasonographer;(lll) four health promotion officers;(mmm) six medical social workers;(nnn) one medical superintendent;(ooo) two health administrative officers;(ppp) ten clerks;(qqq) one secretaries;(rrr) two accountants;(sss) four supply chain assistants;(ttt) two supply chain officers;

(iv) one maternity ward for a three deliveries; and(v) one nursery room with cots;(cc) two operating theatre beds;(dd) administration unit with-(i) one pharmacy/drug dispensing room;(ii) one cash office;(iii) two stores;(iv) two administration offices; and(v) one room for health records;(ee) a supply services unit with-(i) kitchen; and(ii) laundry;(ff) one community services room;(gg) radiology unit;(hh) one x-ray room;(ii) one USS room;(jj) one mortuary;(kk) staff quarters for at least four persons on duty;(ll) ablution block;(mm) four stance pit latrine;(nn) source of running water;(oo) water reservoir;(pp) one placenta pit;(qq) one generator house;(n) one incinerator;(ss) one motorcycle;(tt) two vehicles;(uu) one ambulance;(vv) one support vehicle;(ww)a composite pit;(xx) water storage for roof catchment;(yy) fence and gate.

(uuu) eight health records information management officers;(vvv) two medical engineering technicians;(www) forty medical laboratory technologists;(xxx) ten nutrition and dietetic officers;(yyy) eight nutrition and dietetic technologists;(zzz) four nutrition and dietetic technicians;(aaaa) two cateresses;(bbbb) four public health officers;(cccc) ten cooks;(dddd) twelve drivers;(eeee) forty support Staff;(ffff) six mortuary attendants;(gggg) ten security officers; and(hhhh) at least four specialists in the four major examinable areas to quality as an internship centre.

Level 5

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

Hospital Level 5/County Referral Hospitals/Secondary Care Hospitals/Faith Based

A health facility that -(a) offers services for elimination of communicable diseases;(b) screening for animal transmitted conditions;(c) provides -(i) Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART);

(a) on at least ten acres of land; or office space of approximately 10,000 sq. metres(b) at least three hundred beds;(c) internship centres of at least one hundred and fifty beds;(d) an operating theatre;

At least -(a) fifty medical officers;(b) anesthesiologists;(c) two cardiologists;(d) four general surgeons;(e) two orthopaedic surgeons;(f) one cardiothoracic surgeon;

(ii) AntiRetro Viral(ARV) prophylaxis for children born of HIV +ve mothers;(d) male circumcision;(e) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID management;(f) screening for-(i) cervical cancer for all women in the reproductive age group; and(ii) breast cancer screening for women;(g) prostate examination for men;(h) evacuation services for injuries;(i) disaster risk reduction interventions;(h) facility disaster response planning;(i) disaster management;(j) provides essential services;(k) vaccination for yellow fever, tetanus and rabies;(l) management of surgical emergencies including trauma care;(m) advanced life support;(n) management of pregnancy complications;(o) management of abnormal pregnancies;(p) management of pre-term labour;(q) caesarean section;(r) radiology services;(s) outpatient turnover of more than two hundred and fifty;(t) emergency operations;(u) general operations;(v) specialized operations;(w) management of medical, surgical, pediatric and gynecological in-patients;(x) laboratory services;(y) specialized therapy services;(z) HIV/AIDS management;(aa) tuberculosis management;(bb) Palliative care;(cc) rehabilitative services;(dd) physiotherapy; and(ee) speech and hearing therapy.

(e) an Intensive Care Unit;(f) radiology unit with x-ray machine;(g) specialist clinics;(h) MRI Machine;(i) CT scan machine;(j) dialysis machine;(k) endoscopy & colonoscopy unit;(l) mammography machine;(m) ultra sound machine;(n) one waiting room;(o) six consultation rooms;(p) one registration room;(q) two injection rooms;(r) one plaster room;(s) one minor theatre;(t) one dental unit room;(u) one ENT services room;(v) one laboratory room;(w) MCH/FP unit with-(i) one immunization services room;(ii) one FP coordination room;(iii) one antenata coordination room;(iv) one maternity ward for six deliveries; and(v) one high dependency unit with six cots;(x) inpatient services;(y) two hundred beds for male inpatients;(z) two hundred beds for female and children inpatients;(aa) four operating theatre beds being one each for-(i) Gynae emergencies;(ii) cold case;(iii) general emergencies; and(iv) ophthalmic cases;(bb) one intensive care unit wit four beds;(cc) medical engineering unit;(dd) administration unit with-(i) one pharmacy dispensing room;(ii) one cash office;(iii) two stores;(iv) two administration offices; and(v) one room for health records;(ee) a supply services unit with-(i) kitchen; and(ii) laundry;

(g) one critical care physician;(h) two ENT surgeons;(i) three Obs/Gyne specialists;(j) two palliative care specialists;(k) two neonatologists;(l) two nephrologists;(m) one neurologist;(n) one plastic surgeon or reconstructive surgeon;(o) one neuro-surgeon;(p) four oncologists;(q) two opthalmologists;(r) one optometrist;(s) one dermatologists;(t) one paediatric endocrinologist;(u) one paediatric nephrologist;(v) one paediatric neurologist;(w) one paediatric surgeon;(x) four paeditricians;(y) two pathologists;(z) four psychiatrists;(aa) four radiologists;(bb) one rheumatologist;(cc) four specialist physicians or Internist;(dd) one medical endocrinologist;(ee) two public health physicians;(ff) one urological surgeon;(gg) one child and adolescent psychiatrist;(hh) one community psychiatrist;(ii) one forensic psychiatrist;(jj) forty four general clinical officers;(kk) fourteen graduate clinical officers;(ll) four specialized clinical officers;(mm) two clinical officer lung and skin;(nn) two clinical officers ophthalmology or cataract surgerys;(oo) two clinical officers paediatrics;(pp) two clinical officers reproductive health;(qq) two clinical officers dermatology or venereology;

(ff) one community services room;(gg) radiology unit;(hh) one x-ray room;(ii) one USS room;(jj) one mortuary(kk) staff quarters for at least eight persons on duty;(ll) ablution block;(mm) ten stance pit latrine;(nn) source of running water;(oo) water reservoir;(pp) one placenta pit;(qq) one generator house;(rr) one incinerator;(ss) one motorcycle;(tt) two vehicles;(uu) one ambulance;(vv) one support vehicle;(ww) a composite pit;(xx) water storage for roof catchment; and(yy) fence and gate.

(rr) two clinical officers Orthopaedics;(ss) fifteen clinical officers anaesthetists;(tt) two clinical officers co psychiatry/mental health;(uu) two clinical officers oncology or palliative care;(vv) twelve BSN nurses;(ww) twp cardiology nurses;(xx) twenty critical care nursing nurse;(yy) eight dental nurses;(zz) two forensic nurses;(aaa) two hundred and Kenya Enrolled Community Health nurses;(bbb) two hundred and sixty Kenya Registered Community Health nurses;(ccc) eighty Kenya Registered Nurses nurses;(ddd) Enrolled Nurses;(eee) nephrology nurses;(fff) oncology nurses;(ggg) ophthalmic nurses;(hhh) ten paediatric nurses;(iii) six palliative care nurses;(jjj) twenty psychiatrist nurses;(kkk) sixty Registered Midwives;(lll) two Sign Language nurses;(mmm) sixty theatre nurses;(nnn) four anaesthetist nurses;(ooo) ten Accidents & Emergency nurses;(ppp) six pharmacists;(qqq) four clinical pharmacists;(rrr) one oncology pharmacists;(sss) ten pharmaceutical technologist;(ttt) six plaster technicians or technologists;(uuu) six orthopaedic technologists;(vvv) general physiotherapists;(www) two BSc physiotherap;(xxx) three specialized physiotherapists;(yyy) occupational therapists;(zzz) two clinical psychologists;

(aaaa) ten dental officers;(bbbb) two oromoxillofacifal surgeons;(ccc) six paediatric dentists;(ffff) two Orthodontists'(gggg) ten dental technologists;(hhhh) ten general radiographer;(iiii) two ultrasonographers;(jjjj) one mammographer;(kkkk) three CT scan or MRI radiographer ;(llll) two dental radiographer;(mmmm) two therapy radiographer;(nnnn) two nuclear medicine technologists;(oooo) one radiation monitoring and safety officer;(pppp) medical social workers;(qqqq) one Medical Superintendent;(rrrr) two health administrative officers;(ssss) two human resource management officers;(tttt) twenty clerks;(uuuu) two secretaries;(vvvv) six accountants;(wwww) six supply chain assistants;(xxxx) two supply chain offficers;(yyyy) twelve heal records information management officers;(zzzz) four ICT officers;(aaaaa) two medical engineers(bbbbb) medical engineering technologist;(cccccc) six medical engineering technicians;(ddddd) twenty nutrition and dietetic officer;(eeeee) twelve nutrition and dietetic technologists;(ffff) four nutrition and dietetic technicians;(ggggg) two cateress;(hhhhh) four public health officers;(iiiii) twenty cooks;(jjjj) drivers;(kkkkk) sixty support staff;(lllll) mortuary attendants; and(mmmmm) security officers.

Level 6A

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

Specialized Tertiary Referral HospitalFaith Based Specialized Tertiary Referral Hospital

A health facility that offers specialized services exclusively or a group of specialized services, among others, radiological services, oncology services; ophthalmology services, dental services and renal.

(a) waiting bays;(b) doctors' rooms;(c) nursing station;(d) Head of department's office;(e) nurse in-charge's office;(f) intern's office;(g) cloak rooms for staff and clients;(h) staff lounge room;(i) medical material store room;(j) sluice room;(k) drug cabinet;(l) changing rooms with lockers;(m) laminar flow air system for operating theatres;(n) general equipment including-(i) defibrillator;(ii) ventilator;(iii) modern communication system and ICT infrastructure;(iv) automation in all areas;(v) firefighting equipment;(vi) standby generators; and(vii) UPS back-ups;(viii) catering and laundry, maintenance;(ix) biomedical engineering;(x) general cleaning services; and(xi) infection control infrastructure;(o) laboratory equipment;(p) outpatient or inpatient beds;(q) radiological and imaging equipment including ultra sound scan, x-ray, endoscopy and laparoscopy equipment;(r) general Surgical procedures theater, where applicable; and(s) autopsy equipment.

A resident specialist in charge of the area of specialty of the institution.

Level 6B

Facility

Description

Infrastructure

Personnel

National Tertiary Referral and Teaching Hospitals and Hospitals/

A health facility that-(a) offers services for elimination of communicable diseases;(b) screening for animal transmitted conditions;

(a) on at least ten acres of land; or office space of approximately 10,000 sq. metres.(b) at least three hundred beds;

At least-(a) fifty medical officers;(b) anesthesiologists;(c) one oromaxillofacial anesthesiologist;

National Tertiary Referral and Teaching Faith Based Hospital

(c) provides-(i) Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART);(ii) AntiRetro Viral (ARV) prophylaxis for children born of HIV+ve mothers;(d) male circumcision;(e) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) management;(f) screening for -(i) cervical cancer for all women in the reproductive age group; and(ii) breast cancer screening for women;(g) prostrate examination for men;(h) evacuation services for injuries;(i) disaster risk reduction interventions;(j) facility disaster response planning;(k) disaster management;(l) provides essential services;(m) vaccination for yellow fever, tetanus and rabies;(n) management of surgical emergencies including trauma care;(o) advanced life support;(p) management of pregnancy complications;(q) management of abnormal pregnancies;(r) management of pre-term labour;(s) caesarean section;(t) radiology services;(u) outpatient turnover of more than two hundred and fifty;(v) emergency operations;(w) general operations;(y) management of medical, surgical, pediatric and gynecological in-patients;(z) laboratory services;(aa) specialized therapy services;(bb) HIV/AIDS management;(cc) tuberculosis management;(dd) Palliative care;(ee) rehabilitative services;(f) physiotherapy; and(gg) speech and hearing therapy.

(c) internship centres of at least one hundred and fifty beds;(d) an operating theatre;(e) an Intensive Care Unit;(f) radiology unit with x-ray machine;(g) specialist clinics;(h) MRI Machine;(i) CT scan machine;(j) dialysis machine;(k) endoscopy & colonoscopy unit;(l) mammography machine;(m) ultra sound machine;(n) one waiting room;(o) six consultation rooms;(p) one registration room;(q) two injection rooms;(r) one plaster room;(s) one minor theatre;(t) one dental unit room;(u) one ENT services room;(v) one laboratory room;(w) MCH/FP unit with -(i) one immunization services room;(ii) one FB coordination room;(iii) one antenatal coordination room;(iv) one maternity ward for six deliveries; and(v) one high dependency unit with six cots;(x) inpatient services;(y) two hundred beds for male inpatients;(z) two hundred beds for female and children inpatients;(aa) four operating theatre beds being one each for -(i) Gynae emergencies;(ii) cold case;(iii) general emergencies; and(iv) ophthalmic cases;(bb) one intensive care unit with four beds;(cc) medical engineering unit;(dd) administration unit with -(i) one pharmacy or drug dispensing room;(ii) one cash I office;(iii) two stores;(iv) two administration offices; and(v) one room for health records;

(d) two cardiologists;(e) four general surgeons;(f) two orthopaedic surgeons;(g) one cardiothoracic surgeon;(h) one critical care physician;(i) two ENT surgeons;(j) two gastroentologists;(k) three Obs/Gyne specialists;(l) two palliative care specialists;(m) two neonatologists;(n) one nephrologist;(o) one neurologist;(p) one plastic surgeon or reconstructive surgeon;(q) one neuro-surgeon;(r) four oncologists;(s) two ophthalmogists;(t) one optomerist;(u) one dermatologists;(v) one paediatric endocrinologist;(w) one paediatric nephrologist;(x) one paediatric neurologist;(y) one paediatric surgeon;(z) four paeditricians;(aa) two pathologists;(bb) four psychiatrists;(cc) four radiologists;(dd) one rheumatologist;(ee) four specialist physicians or internist;(ff) one medical endocrinologist;(gg) two public health physicians;(hh) one urological surgeon;(ii) one child and adolescent psychiatrist;(jj) one community psychiatrist;(kk) one forensic psychiatrist;(ll) forty four general clinical officers;(mm) fourteen graduate clinical officers;(nn)four specialized clinical officers;(oo) two clinical officer lung and skins;(pp) two clinical officers ophthalmology or cataract surgerys;

(ee) a supply services unit with-(i) kitchen; and(ii) laundry;(f) one communityservices room;(gg) radiology unit;(hh) one x-ray room;(iii) one USS room;(zz) one mortuary;(aaa) staff quarters for at least eight persons on duty;(bbb) ablution block;(ccc) ten stance pit latrine;(ddd) source of running water;(eee) water reservoir;(fff) one placenta pit;(ggg) one generator house;(hhh) one incinerator;(iii) one motorcycle;(jjj) two vehicles;(kkk) one ambulance;(lll) one support vehicle;(mmm) a composite pit;(nnn) water storage for roof catchment;(ooo) fence and gate.

(qq) two clinical officers paediatrics;(rr) two clinical officers reproductive health;(ss) two clinical officers dermatology oI venereology;(tt) two clinical officers Orthopaedics;(uu) fifteen clinical officers anaesthetists;(vv) two clinical officers copsychi atrylmentall health;(ww) two clinicall officers oncologyl or palliative care;(xx) twelve BSN nurses;(yy) two cardiology nurses;(zz) twenty critical care nursing nurses;(aaa) eight dental nurses;(bbb) two forensic nurses;(ccc) two hundred and Kenyal Enrolled Community Health nurses;(ddd) two hundred and sixty Kenya Registered Community Health nurses;(eee) eighty Kenya Registered Nurse nurses;(fff) Enrolled Nurses;(ggg) nephrology nurses;(hhh) oncology nurses;(iii) ophthalmic nurses;(jjj) ten paediatric nurses;(kkk) six palliative care nurses;(lll) twenty psychiatrist nurses;(mmm)sixty Registered Midwives;(nnn) two Sign Language nurses;(ooo) sixty theatre nurses;(ppp) four anaesthetist nurses;(qqq) ten Accidents & Emergency nurses;(rrr) six pharmacists;(sss) four clinical pharmacists;(ttt) one oncology pharmacist;(uuu) ten pharmaceutical technologist;(vvv) six plaster technicians or technologists;

(www) six orthopaedic technologists;(xxx) general physiotherapist s;(yyy) two BSc physiotherapy;(zzz) three specialized physiotherapists;(ana) occupational therapists;(bbbb)two clinical psychologists;(cccc) ten dental officers;(dddd)two oromaxillofacia I surgeons;(eeee) six paediatric dentists;(ffff)two Orthodontists;(gggg)ten dental technologists;(hhhh)ten general radiographer;(iiii) two ultranosranhel(jjjj) one mammographe;(kkkk) three CT scan or MRI Iradiographer;(llll) two dental radiographer;(mmmm) two I therapy radiographer;(nnnn) two nuclear medicine I technologists; (oooo) one radiation monitoring and safety officer;(pppp) medical social workers;(qqqq) one Medical Superintendent;(rrrr) two health administrative officers;(ssss) two human resource management officers;(tttt) twenty clerks; (uuuu) two secretaries (vvvv) six accountants;(wwww) six supply chain assistants;(xxxx) two supply chain officers;(yyyyy) twelve health records information management I officers; (zzzz) four ICT officers;(aaaaa) two medical engineers(bbbbb) medical engineering technologists;(cccccc) six medical engineering technicians;

(ddddd) twenty nutrition and dietetic officer;(eeeee) twelve nutrition and dietetic technologists;(fffff) four nutrition anddietetic technicians; (ggggg) two cateress; (hhhhh) four public health officers;(iiiii) twenty cooks;(jjjj) drivers;(kkkkk) sixty support staff;(lllll) mortuary attendants; and(mmmmm) security officers.

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT) REGULATIONS

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS

1.

Citation
2.

Conduct of education programmes by the Board
3.

Record of accredited programmes and participants
4.

Requirements for continuing professional education programmes
5.

Fees
6.

Attendance and participation in programmes by practitioners
7.

Proof of attendance in a professional development programme
8.

Delegation of functions

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT) REGULATIONS
1.
Citation

These Regulations may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Continuing Professional Development) Regulations, 2005, and shall come into force on such date as the Cabinet Secretary may, by notice in the Gazette, appoint.
2.
Conduct of education programmes by the Board
(1)

The Board shall conduct such continuing professional development or education programmes as may be deemed relevant from time to time, and may accredit any programme conducted by any institution, body or other organization where the said institution, body or organization has filed a return with the Board.
(2)

The Board shall assign a unit or units to each continuing professional development or education programme to be used in awarding credits to members participating thereof, and may issue certificates of participation to the participants who have successfully completed a programme or programmes.
3.
Record of accredited programmes and participants
(1)

The Board shall keep a record of all accredited programmes showing the description of such programmes.
(2)

The Board shall keep a record of the participants taking part in any programme, showing against any participant, whether he completed the programme or not.
4.
Requirements for continuing professional education programmes

Every continuing professional development or education programme shall emphasize ethical, practical and professional aspects of clinical practice and/or strategic health planning, must be relevant to the practice of medicine, and shall be aimed at the improvement of the professional competence of the medical and dental practitioners.
5.
Fees

The Board may prescribe a fee to be paid by participants taking part in any continuing professional development or education programme, and in the case of an accredited programme, the Board shall approve any fee levied.
6.
Attendance and participation in programmes by practitioners

Every medical and dental practitioner must attend and participate in at least two programmes organized, or accredited, by the Board, and must obtain not less than five units consequent upon such attendance and participation in such programmes in any given year.
7.
Proof of attendance in a professional development programme

Every application for an annual retention certificate shall be accompanied by proof that the applicant has secured five units upon attending and participating in the continuing professional development or education programmes during the preceding year.
8.
Delegation of functions

The Board may delegate any or all of its functions under these Regulations to a committee.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (TRAINING, ASSESSMENT AND REGISTRATION) RULES

IN EXERCISE of the powers conferred by rule 32 of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Training, Assessment and Registration) Rules, 2014, the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board declares the institutions set out in the schedule as recognized institutions at which internship may be undertaken.

SCHEDULE

RECOGNIZED INSTITUTIONS

A Recognized institutions at which internship may be undertaken by a medical practitioner:

1.

Aga Khan Hospital – Kisumu.
2.

Aga Khan Hospital – Mombasa.
3.

Aga Khan University Hospital.
4.

AIC Kijabe Hospital.
5.

AIC Litein Hospital.
6.

Bungoma District Hospital.
7.

Busia District Hospital.
8.

Chuka District Hospital.
9.

Coast Provincial General Hospital.
10.

Consolata Hospital, Mathari.
11.

Defence Forces Memorial Hospital.
12.

Embu Provincial General Hospital.
13.

Garissa District Hospital.
14.

Gatundu District Hospital.
15.

Homabay District Hospital.
16.

Isiolo District Hospital.
17.

Iten District Hospital.
18.

Jaramogi Oginga Odinga Teaching & Referral Hospital.
19.

Kabarnet District Hospital.
20.

Kajiado District Hospital.
21.

Kakamega Provincial General Hospital.
22.

Kangundo District Hospital.
23.

Kapenguria District Hospital.
24.

Kapkatet District Hospital.
25.

Kapsabet District Hospital.
26.

Karatina District Hospital.
27.

Kendu Adventist Hospital.
28.

Kenyatta National Hospital.
29.

Kericho District Hospital.
30.

Kerugoya District Hospital
31.

Kiambu District Hospital.
32.

Kilifi District Hospital.
33.

Kisii Level 5 Hospital.
34.

Kisumu District Hospital.
35.

Kitale District Hospital.
36.

Kitui District Hospital.
37.

Machakos Level 5 Hospital.
38.

Makueni District Hospital.
39.

Malindi District Hospital.
40.

Mama Lucy Kibaki Hospital.
41.

Maragua District Hospital.
42.

Maua Methodist Hospital.
43.

Mbagathi District Hospital.
44.

Meru District Hospital.
45.

Migori District Hospital.
46.

Moi Hospital – Voi.
47.

Moi Teaching & Referral Hospital.
48.

Mukurweini District Hospital.
49.

Murang’a District Hospital.
50.

Mwingi District Hospital.
51.

Naivasha District Hospital.
52.

Nakuru Provincial General Hospital.
53.

Nanyuki District Hospital.
54.

Narok District Hospital.
55.

Nazareth Mission Hospital.
56.

North Kinangop Catholic Hospital.
57.

Nyahururu District Hospital.
58.

Nyamira District Hospital.
59.

Nyeri Provincial General Hospital.
60.

Our Lady of Lourdes Mwea Hospital.
61.

PCEA Chogoria Hospital.
62.

PCEA Kikuyu Hospital.
63.

PCEA Tumutumu Hospital.
64.

Siaya District Hospital.
65.

Tenwek Mission Hospital.
66.

The Karen Hospital.
67.

The Mater Hospital.
68.

Thika Level 5 Hospital.
69.

Vihiga District Hospital.
70.

Webuye District Hospital.
71.

Msambweni District Hospital.

B Recognized institutions at which internship may be undertaken by a dental practitioner:

1.

Kenyatta National Hospital.
2.

University of Nairobi–School of Dental Sciences.
3.

Coast Provincial General Hospital.
4.

Defence Forces Memorial Hospital.
5.

Jaramogi Oginga Odinga Teaching & Referral Hospital.
6.

Machakos Level 5 Hospital.
7.

Moi Teaching and Referral Hospital.
8.

Nyeri Provincial General Hospital.
9.

Rift Valley Provincial Hospital.
10.

Kakamega Provincial General Hospital.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (FITNESS TO PRACTISE) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Establishment of the Committee
4.

Functions of the committee
5.

Procedure relating to impairment
6.

Appeal
7.

Effects of failure to comply with the Rules
8.

Application for restoration of license

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE —

FITNESS TO PRACTISE REPORTING FORM

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (FITNESS TO PRACTISE) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Fitness to Practise) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Board" has the meaning assigned to it under section 2 of the Act;

"Committee" means the Fitness to Practice Committee established under rule 3;

"fitness to practise" in relation to a medical or dental practitioner or student, means a person having the necessary skills, knowledge and character to practise safely and effectively and includes acts that may affect public protection or confidence in the profession;

"impairment" means a mental, social, or physical condition which affects or has the potential to affect competence, attitude, judgement or performance of professional acts by a registered practitioner or a medical or dental student and may include—

(a)

serious or persistent failure to meet institutional or professional minimum standards of practise;
(b)

reckless or deliberate acts that potentially affect or harm self, colleagues and patients, relatives of patients and others;
(c)

concealing professional errors or impeding investigations into the same;
(d)

sexual misconduct or indecency;
(e)

improper relationships with service users or colleagues;
(f)

failure to respect the autonomy of service users;
(g)

violence or threatening behaviour;
(h)

dishonesty, fraud or an abuse of trust;
(i)

exploitation of a vulnerable person;
(j)

substance abuse or misuse;
(k)

health problems which the practitioner or student has not addressed, and which may affect safety or confidence of the service users;
(l)

any other equally serious activities, behaviours, utterances which undermine public confidence in the medical profession;

"intervention" means any medical, social or other process, procedure or activity conducted with a view to correcting an impairment in a medical or dental practitioner or student;

"practitioner" means a person registered under the Act as a medical practitioner or dentist; and

"student" means a person undergoing medical or dental training in an institution registered under the Act.
3.
Establishment of the Committee
(1)

There is established a committee to be known as the Fitness to Practice Committee.
(2)

The Committee shall comprise of—

(a)

the vice-Chairperson of the Board, who shall Chair the Committee;
(b)

three members of the Board;
(c)

a representative appointed by the Kenya Medical Association;
(d)

a representative appointed by the Kenya Dental Association; and
(e)

the advocate of the Board who shall be the legal advisor;
(f)

four other members co-opted by the Committee and of whom—

(i) one shall be a preferred expert or professional representative of the practitioner or student appearing before the Committee;
(ii) one shall be a representative nominated by the relevant specialist association;
(iii) one shall be a professional expert as may be nominated by the Board, and
(iv) one shall be a person whose expertise is relevant to the matter as the Board may determine.
(3)

In the absence of the vice-Chairperson of the Board the Committee shall appoint a Chairperson from amongst its members who are members of the Board.
(4)

The quorum at the meeting of the Committee shall be six members.
(5)

Subject to these Rules, the Committee may regulate its own procedures.
4.
Functions of the committee

The Committee shall—

(a)

receive reports of alleged impairment of practitioners and students from themselves, institutions, practitioners, patients, the Board, the general public or from any other source;
(b)

undertake an inquiry into reports of alleged impairment of practitioners and students;
(c)

recommend to the Board appropriate interventions, where applicable, and
(d)

recommend to the Board the conditions for fitness to practise from time to time.
5.
Procedure relating to impairment
(1)

Any person making a report regarding the fitness to practise of a practitioner or student shall complete the prescribed Form provided for in the Schedule and submit it to the Board.
(2)

All reports received by the Committee shall be discussed in a sitting of the Committee.
(3)

In the event the Committee finds that the report merits further inquiry it shall record as such and thereafter cause the concerned practitioner or student to be assessed.
(4)

Upon assessment under paragraph (3), the Committee may make any of the following recommendations to the Board—

(a)

that the practitioner or student is fit to practise;
(b)

that the practitioner or student is unfit to practise independently and requires to practise under supervision while undergoing an intervention for a prescribed period of time;
(c)

that the practitioner or student is temporarily unfit to practise and should have their licence or privileges temporarily withdrawn for the duration of an intervention to facilitate their return to fitness; or
(d)

that the practitioner or student is permanently unfit to practise and should have their practise licence or privileges permanently withdrawn and undergo any other interventions as may be deemed necessary.
6.
Appeal

Any person aggrieved by a decision of the Committee may, within 14 days of that decision, appeal against the decision to the Board.
7.
Effects of failure to comply with the Rules

A practitioner or student who fails to comply with the requirements or any directive issued under these Rules shall have their license withdrawn by the Board until such a time as they shall be deemed to have complied.
8.
Application for restoration of license

A practitioner or student whose license or privileges have been temporarily withdrawn shall upon satisfactory completion of the prescribed intervention, apply for restoration of their license or privileges and the application shall be considered alongside a confidential report submitted to the Board indicating fitness to practise or otherwise.

SCHEDULE

FITNESS TO PRACTISE REPORTING FORM

FORM

(r. 5(1))

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT(Cap. 253)

MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS, FITNESS TO PRACTISE REPORTING FORM
1.

Date ..........................................................................................
2.

Name of practitioner/student subject to report ....................................................
3.

Physical Address of practitioner/student subject to report .......................................

...................................................................................................................
4.

Nature of alleged impairment .........................................................................

.

Any Other Relevant Information ................................................................................

(may attach additional documents if available)

5.

Details of person reporting (optional)

Name .................................. Signature ...................................

P. O. Box ............................. Code .................... City ................

Tel. No. ........................ email ............................................
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MEDICAL CAMP) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Holding of a medical camp
4.

Rejection of application
5.

Conditions on a licence
6.

Licence to apply on the site
7.

Revocation of a licence
8.

Duration of the medical camp
9.

Responsibility of the Camp Director

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE —

FORMS

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MEDICAL CAMP) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Medical Camp) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Camp Director" means a medical or dental practitioner of good standing who assumes overall responsibility for a medical camp;

"foreign practitioner" means a person licensed by the Board from recognized jurisdictions under section 13 of the Act and who appears in the register of temporary foreign medical or dental practitioners;

"medical camp" means a temporarily organized activity within a specified locality for purposes of providing free, subsidized or sponsored medical or dental services, surgical, educational and diagnostic services or treatment;

"practitioner" means a person for the time being registered or licensed as a medical or dental practitioner under the Act;

"site" means the location where the medical camp shall take place; and

"sponsoring entity" means a person who meets the full or part of the cost of a medical camp.
3.
Holding of a medical camp
(1)

A medical camp may be held anywhere within the country upon application to the Board for a licence and fulfillment of the requirements set out under these Rules.
(2)

An application for licence to hold a medical camp shall be filled in the Form as set out in the Schedule and shall be accompanied by a prescribed fee and the following information—

(a)

a detailed profile of the medical camp which shall include the dates, location and services to be provided;
(b)

a list of the practitioners and other health professionals who shall attend to patients during the medical camp;
(c)

a list of non-health professionals involved in the medical camp;
(d)

a list of medical equipment and supplies;
(e)

a referral policy as set out in the approved referral guidelines;
(f)

a professional indemnity cover from a recognized organization; and
(g)

a waste management policy.
(3)

An application for a licence under this rule shall be made not less than four weeks before the commencement of the medical camp.
(4)

The Board may, upon receipt of an application for a licence to hold a medical camp, request such further or relevant information from the applicant as it deems fit.
(5)

The Board may in its discretion waive the prescribed fees or any part thereof for the general interest of the public.
(6)

Despite the provisions of paragraphs (1) and (2), the Board may, if it is satisfied that it is in the public interest to do so, allow a medical camp to be held within such other terms as it may deem fit.
4.
Rejection of application
(1)

The Board may reject an application for a medical camp made under these Rules, but before rejecting the application it shall inform the applicant in writing, with a seven days’ notice, giving reasons for the intended rejection.
(2)

Any applicant issued with a notice under paragraph (1) may lodge an appeal with the Board within seven days of receipt of the notice.
5.
Conditions on a licence

The Board may, upon issuance of a licence, impose any conditions on a licence as it considers fit and may cancel a licence if any of the conditions imposed on the licence are contravened.
6.
Licence to apply on the site

A licence shall be issued only in respect to the site and duration named in the application and shall not apply to any other site or duration unless authorized by the Board.
7.
Revocation of a licence

A licence issued under these Rules may at any time be revoked by the Board—

(a)

if the licensee does not comply with the provisions of these Rules or obstructs, any person carrying out any duties or the responsibilities under the Act or these Rules;
(b)

if the medical camp is conducted in a manner contrary to these Rules or contrary to public interest; or
(c)

where after inquiry or during the medical camp, the Board finds professional misconduct.
8.
Duration of the medical camp

A medical camp shall not be held for more than seven days unless the Board otherwise permits.
9.
Responsibility of the Camp Director

It shall be the responsibility of the Camp Director to—

(a)

notify and apply to the relevant authorities including county government in writing of the intention to hold a medical camp;
(b)

obtain authorization to hold the medical camp from the Board and other statutory bodies;
(c)

ensure that all health care professionals involved in the medical camp are duly licensed by the Board or other relevant regulatory authorities;
(d)

ensure supervision of medical or dental students involved in the medical camp;
(e)

have in place a referral mechanism for patients requiring further management; and
(f)

file a report with the Board within three months of completion of the medical camp.

SCHEDULE

FORMS

FORM I

(r. 3(2))

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD(Cap. 253)

APPLICATION TO CONDUCT MEDICAL/DENTALCAMP(S)

Section 1: Details of the Applicant

(a)

Individual Application

Name (as it appears on the National ID/Passport):......................................

ID Number/Passport No. ..........................Nationality:..........................

P.O. Box .................. Code ............... Town ................ County ................

Email address ...................................................

Telephone No.: ....................... Mobile No. ....................

(b)

Institutional Application

Name of the institution (as it appears on registration certificate/certificate of incorporation)

..................................................................................

Country of Registration.........................................................

P.O. Box .................. Code ............... Town ................... County .............

Physical Location: .............................................................

Email address ................................................................

Telephone No.: ......................... Mobile No. ..............................

Section 2: Details of the Camp

Name of Camp Director: ...............................................

ID Number/Passport No. ................... Nationality: ..................

Duration of the medical camp:

From: ..........................To: ......................

Location ................... County ....................... Sub-County ..............

Further details of the medical camp site (include details of the specific location):

....................................................................................

..................................................................................

Name of sponsoring entity ......................................

Country of registration of sponsoring entity .......................

Estimated no. of patients to be seen .............................

Services to be offered during the camp:

(i) ...................................................
(ii) ...............................................
(iii) ...............................................
(iv) ................................................
(v) ...................................................

Section 3: Requirements

Attach the following documents, to this application form, in the prescribed order:

1.

Copies of up-to-date licences of ALL medical/dental practitioners involved in the camp;
2.

Copies of up-to-date licences of ALL other health personnel involved in the camp;
3.

List of ALL non-medical/dental personnel involved in the camp;
4.

Letter of authorization from the County Government or relevant Authority;
5.

List of ALL Medical Equipment;
6.

Referral Policy;
7.

Waste management and disposal policy; and
8.

Medical Indemnity Cover;
9.

Proof of payment of the application fees and credentialing fees

(a)

Application fees KSh. 5,000.00
(b)

Credentialing fees as per the following catergories

(i) Category A—KSh.100,000.00
(ii) Category B—KSh.50,000.00
(iii) Category C—KSh.20,000.00
(iv) Category D—KSh.10,000.00
(v) Category E – Free

Section 4: Declaration

I solemnly declare that
1.

The information given above is true to the best of my knowledge and belief.
2.

The Medical/Dental camp is NOT FOR PROFIT

Signature of Applicant .......................... Date ...................

FOR OFFICIAL USE

The process will take a maximum of two (2) weeks.

PREPAREDName: ............................Designation ...................Signature ........................Date ................................RECOMMENDEDName .............................Designation ..................Signature ......................Date ..............................

APPROVED/NOT APPROVEDName .......................................Designation ............................Signature ...............................
______________________________

FORM II

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS BOARD(Cap. 253)

LICENCE TO CONDUCT A MEDICAL CAMP

This is to certify that .................................

(Applicant’s Name or Sponsoring Institution/Facility)

P.O Box .....................................................

Category ....................................................

is hereby granted authority to conduct a Medical/Dental Camp Under the provisions of the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Act Cap. 253 at ................... from ..................... to ............

(Location)

Dated this................... day of ................... 20 ...............

...........................................................

Chairman of

Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

CONDITIONS OF THE LICENCE

1. This licence is issued on condition that the minimum requirements set by the Board for conducting a medical/dental camp are adhered to at all times and that the medical/dental camp is not for profit.

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PRACTITIONERS AND HEALTH FACILITIES) (ADVERTISING) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

General conduct
4.

Information which may be advertised
5.

Information which may not be included in advertisements
6.

Signposts or notice boards
7.

Prohibited means of attracting business
8.

Effect of non-compliance

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PRACTITIONERS AND HEALTH FACILITIES) (ADVERTISING) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Practitioners and Health Facilities) (Advertising) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"advertisement" means the use of promotional information to increase sales which is transmitted through but not limited to any public communication using television, radio, motion pictures, newspapers, billboards, books, lists, pictorial representations, designs, mobile communications or other displays, the internet or directories, business cards, announcement cards, office signs, letterhead, telephone directory listings, professional lists, professional directory listings and similar professional notices;

"health institution" means an institution which, is registered by the Board under the Act for provision of medical and dental services;

"intermediary" means a person or party who provides a link between the practitioners or institutions and the patients;

"practitioner" means a person registered under the Act as a medical or dental practitioner.
3.
General conduct
(1)

A practitioner or health institution registered under the Act shall not directly or indirectly permit any promotion which may be reasonably regarded as calculated to attract patients, clients or business except as provided under these Rules.
(2)

Advertisements under these Rules shall only contain information about services offered in Kenya.
(3)

A practitioner or health institution shall not advertise their practice in any form other than in accordance with these Rules.
(4)

An advertisement made under these Rules shall—

(a)

be objective, true and dignified;
(b)

be respectful of the professional ethics of the profession;
(c)

not attempt to denigrate other practitioners or health institutions or the profession; and
(d)

not infringe on patient confidentiality.
(5)

Nothing in these Rules derogates from the power of the Board to rule on the desirability or otherwise of a practitioner, a health institution or of the proposed or actual advertisements.
4.
Information which may be advertised
(1)

A practitioner or a health institution may only provide the following information in an advertisement under these Rules—

(a)

the identity of the medical or dental practitioner;
(b)

the identity of the health institution or hospital;
(c)

the reference to the practitioner’s specialization issued by the Board;
(d)

the address, physical location and other contact information of the practitioner, clinic, office or health institution including the email and web site;
(e)

the language of business used by the practitioner or the health institution;
(f)

the hours the clinic or facility or office is open for conducting business;
(g)

the statement of the position currently or previously held by the practitioner within the health institution;
(h)

the certification or accreditation of the practitioner with a professional body or agency including any affiliation with licensed hospitals or clinics;
(i)

the safety and quality accreditation of the practice or healthcare setting;
(j)

the year of registration and registration number of the practitioners or the health institution;
(k)

the professional and academic qualification(s) of the practitioner provided that any such professional qualifications should be recognized by the Board, and
(l)

any publication or cases or research work and provision of medical or dental education in which the practitioner or facility or other professional members of the health institution may have contributed to, provided such information does not infringe on patient confidentiality.
(2)

Practitioners shall not participate in health related advertisements or endorse health related medical products and procedures unless provided for under these Rules.
5.
Information which may not be included in advertisements
(1)

A practitioner or health institution shall not provide the following information in an advertisement under these Rules—

(a)

the names or identities of patients;
(b)

a picture of the patient or client, which includes images, graphic or other visual representations or facsimiles;
(c)

information that creates or is likely to create unrealistic or unwarranted expectations about the effectiveness of the health services offered;
(d)

a promise by the practitioner or health institution to achieve a particular outcome for the patient or prospective patients or clients;
(e)

a promise to complete treatment of patients in any particular time or faster than other practitioners or Health Institutions;
(f)

a promise that failure to obtain the outcome promised shall constitute a waiver of the fees for the practitioner or Health Institutions, and
(g)

deceitful, erroneous or misleading information.
(2)

Despite the provisions of paragraph (1), a patient or legal guardian shall retain autonomy to consent or decide whether their information or otherwise may be shared.
6.
Signposts or notice boards

Any signage put up by a medical or dental practitioner or health institution shall contain information in accordance with these Rules and shall not—

(a)

use the Red Cross and Red Crescent or any other copyrighted signs; or
(b)

use names, photographs, images and diagrams which may be misleading to members of the public.
7.
Prohibited means of attracting business

No medical or dental practitioner or health institution shall seek to advertise, solicit or attract business or patients through any of the following means—

(a)

an "intermediary" that would amount to professional touting;
(b)

unsolicited contact;
(c)

false or misleading statements, or where undue influence is used; and
(d)

arranged referrals where commission or otherwise is arranged or paid.
8.
Effect of non-compliance
(1)

In the event a medical or dental practitioner or a health institution is in breach of any of these Rules, the Board shall upon receipt of a complaint refer the complaint to the Preliminary Inquiry Committee for an appropriate inquiry or action.
(2)

Where a practitioner or health institution fails to comply with these Rules that practitioner or health institution commits an act of professional misconduct.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PROFESSIONAL FEES) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation
3.

Chargeable fees
4.

Powers of the Board
5.

Effect of failure to comply

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE [r. 3(1),(4)] —

FEES

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (PROFESSIONAL FEES) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Professional Fees) Rules, 2016.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Board" means the Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board established under section 4 of the Act;

"institution" means a facility or institution registered under the Act to offer medical or dental services or both; and

"practitioner" means a practitioner registered under the Act as a medical or dental practitioner.
3.
Chargeable fees
(1)

The fees specified under the Schedule to these Rules shall be the fees charged by practitioners offering medical or dental services, or both.
(2)

The fees referred to under paragraph (1) shall be adhered to by all practitioners and institutions registered under the Act and no practitioner may agree or accept fees above that which is provided under these Rules.
(3)

No practitioner shall charge fees for a consultation or services not rendered.
(4)

The fees prescribed under the Schedule shall be subject to revision at the discretion of the Board.
4.
Powers of the Board

The Board shall have powers to arbitrate any disputes on fees as shall arise between a practitioner and an institution or between a practitioner and a patient or a third party and the Board shall conduct the arbitration in such manner as it shall consider suitable for determination of the dispute.
5.
Effect of failure to comply

Where a practitioner fails to comply with these Rules that practitioner commits an act of professional misconduct.

SCHEDULE

[r. 3(1),(4)]

FEES

FORM

Annual Inflation Rate

Year

2013 - 5.60

2014 - 6.50

2015 - 6.80

Compounded Inflation Rate - 0.20

NOTE: The Current figures have been adjusted using the inflation rate as from the year 2013 toMarch 2015 as quoted by The Kenya National Bureau of Statistics attached as ANNEX 1.

A: GENERAL PRACTITIONERS

New

New

Minimum (KSh.)

Maximum (KSh.)

Consultation

1,800.00

5,000.00

House Visits – NB (Consultations only. Incidentals to be agreed upon by the parties)

-

-

Day Time

3,600.00

7,500.00

Night Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

Hospital Visits

Day Time

3,600.00

7,500.00

Night Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

Institutional Locum Fees per hour -Daytime

2,000.00

5,000.00

Institutional Locum Fees per hour - Nighttime

3,000.00

6,000.00

B: SPECIALISTS

Consultations

3,600.00

7,500.00

House Visits NB (Consultations only. Incidentals to be agreed upon by the parties)

-

-

Day Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

Night Time

12,000.00

18,000.00

Hospital Visits

Day Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

Emergency Night visits

12,000.00

18,000.00

Emergency Day visits

7,200.00

12,000.00

ICU Visit (Daily charges)

7,200.00

10,000.00

HDU Visit (Daily charges)

6,000.00

7,500.00

Witnessing a postmortem

24,000.00

60,000.00

Institutional Locum Fees per hour - Daytime

3,000.00

6,000.00

Institutional Locum Fees per hour - Nighttime

4,500.00

9,000.00

C: GENERAL MEDICAL AND DENTAL LEGAL REPORTS

GMDLR01

General medical and dental reports

6,000.00

12,000.00

GMDLR02

Medical and Dental Legal Reports

6,000.00

60,000.00

GMDLR03

Court Appearances ( per session)

50,000.00

120,000.00

M001: GENERAL SURGERY

-

-

A) Complex Major

Minimum

Maximum

GEN.SURG01

Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

90,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG02

Anterior Resection of Rectum

80.00.00

150,000.00

GEN.SURG03

Total Gastrectomy

96,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG04

Partial Gastrectomy

60,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG05

Total Oesophagectomy

84,000.00

144,000.00

GEN.SURG06

Unilateral Adrenalectomy

90,000.00

144,000.00

GEN.SURG07

Bilateral Adrenalectomy

108,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG08

Total Resection of Colon

84,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG09

Partial Pancreatectomy

132,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG10

Nephrectomy

66,000.00

90,000.00

GEN.SURG11

Cholecystectomy + CBD exploration

90,000.00

170,000.00

GEN.SURG12

Excision of Biliary stricture

132,000.00

180,000.00

B) Major I

GEN.SURG14

Open cholecystectomy

72,000.00

168,000.00

GEN.SURG15

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

96,000.00

150,000.00

GEN.SURG16

Vagotomy + drainage

72,000.00

132,000.00

GEN.SURG17

Repair of perforated duodenal ulcer

72,000.00

96,000.00

GEN.SURG18

Repair of hiatus hernia

54,000.00

96,000.00

GEN.SURG19

Splenectomy

70,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG20

Parathyroidectomy

120,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG21

Radical mastectomy

100,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG22

Simple mastectomy

72,000.00

96,000.00

GEN.SURG23

Breast lumpectomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

GEN.SURG24

Drainage of breast abscess

40,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG25

Segmental resection of breast

60,000.00

96,000.00

GEN.SURG26

Total thyroidectomy

72,000.00

170,000.00

GEN.SURG27

Intestinal resection + anastomosis

72,000.00

150,000.00

GEN.SURG28

Exploration of retroperitoneal mass

72,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG29

Exploratory laparatomy

72,000.00

108,000.00

GEN.SURG30

Bowel resection and anastomosis

72,000.00

108,000.00

GEN.SURG31

Laparatomy for pyloric stenosis

48,000.00

72,000.00

GEN.SURG32

Hemicolectomy

84,000.00

144,000.00

GEN.SURG33

Transverse colectomy

84,000.00

144,000.00

GEN.SURG34

Exteriorization of caecum

72,000.00

108,000.00

GEN.SURG35

Stripping of bilateral varicose veins

72,000.00

108,000.00

GEN.SURG36

Bilateral inguinal herniorrapphy

60,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG37

Bilateral sympathectomy

60,000.00

96,000.00

GEN.SURG38

Bilateral gynaecomastia correction

48,000.00

110,000.00

GEN.SURG39

Excision of Liver hydatid cyst

66,000.00

160,000.00

C ) Major II

GEN.SURG40

Repair of umbilical hernia

50,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG41

Repair of epigastric hernia

60,000.00

110,000.00

GEN.SURG42

Repair of incisional hernia

50,000.00

110,000.00

GEN.SURG43

Unilateral inguinal herniorrhaphy

50,000.00

120,000.00

GEN.SURG44

Unilateral femoral herniorrhaphy

60,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG45

Repair of recurrent inguinal hernia

80,000.00

150,000.00

GEN.SURG46

Repair of strangulated hernias

54,000.00

120,000.00

GEN.SURG47

Repair of burst abdomen

50,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG48

Stripping of unilateral varicose veins

40,000.00

80,000.00

GEN.SURG49

Unilateral sympathectomy

30,000.00

66,000.00

GEN.SURG50

Unilateral gynaecomastia correction

30,000.00

66,000.00

GEN.SURG51

Laparoscopic appendicectomy

80,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG52

Laparoscopic herniorraphy

65,000.00

120,000.00

GEN.SURG53

Laparoscopic Niessens

120,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG54

Laparoscopic gastrojejunostomy

70,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG55

Laparoscopic repair of perforated duodenal ulcer

80,000.00

120,000.00

D) Intermediate I

—

—

GEN.SURG56

Unilateral orchidopexy

60,000.00

120,000.00

GEN.SURG57

Bilateral orchidopexy

90,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG58

Appendicectomy

60,000.00

120,000.00

GEN.SURG59

Diagnostic laparoscopy + biopsy

60,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG60

Unilateral herniotomy

50,000.00

80,000.00

GEN.SURG61

Bilateral herniotomy

60,000.00

90,000.00

GEN.SURG62

Unilateral herniotomy + orchidopexy

80,000.00

100,000.00

GEN.SURG63

Bilateral herniotomy + orchidopexy

90,000.00

180,000.00

GEN.SURG64

Haemorrhoidectomy

70,000.00

150,000.00

GEN.SURG65

Colostomy

70,000.00

90,000.00

GEN.SURG66

Closure of colostomy

80,000.00

140,000.00

GEN.SURG67

EUA and anorectal stretch

40,000.00

66,000.00

GEN.SURG68

Lateral sphincterotomy

50,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG69

Excision of pilonidal sinus

36,000.00

72,000.00

GEN.SURG70

Fistulectomy for fistulae in ano

36,000.00

80,000.00

GEN.SURG71

Orchidectomy

36,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG72

Tracheostomy

30,000.00

60,000.00

E) Intermediate II

GEN.SURG73

Minor skin graft

30,000.00

48,000.00

GEN.SURG74

Minor release of contractures

30,000.00

54,000.00

GEN.SURG75

Excision of sternomastoid tumour

30,000.00

54,000.00

GEN.SURG76

Repair of hydrocele

36,000.00

80,000.00

GEN.SURG77

Excision of thyroglossal cyst

30,000.00

60,000.00

F) Minor (GA)

—

—

GEN.SURG78

Lymph node biopsy

18,000.00

36,000.00

GEN.SURG79

Surgical toilet

30,000.00

80,000.00

GEN.SURG80

Needle biopsy: liver

18,000.00

36,000.00

GEN.SURG81

Secondary suturing of wounds

30,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG82

Excision of ganglion

30,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG83

Excision of lipoma

30,000.00

70,000.00

GEN.SURG84

Skin biopsy

22,000.00

36,000.00

GEN.SURG85

Excision of warts /skin lesions

18,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG86

Adult circumcision

18,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG87

Paediatric circumcision

18,000.00

70,000.00

GEN.SURG88

Incision & drainage

25,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG89

Incision & drainage (perineal abscess )

25,000.00

60,000.00

GEN.SURG90

Ingrown toenail

20,000.00

40,000.00

M002 : GENERAL SURGERY

—

—

G) Minor (LA)

GEN.SURG91

Lymph node biopsy

15,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG92

Excision of lipoma/lump

15,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG93

Excision of breast lump

15,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG95

Ingrown toenail

20,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG96

Excision of sebacious cyst

25,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG97

Excision of ganglion

20,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG98

Excision of warts/skin lesions

15,000.00

50,000.00

GEN.SURG99

Sigmoidoscopy

18,000.00

40,000.00

GEN.SURG100

Colonoscopy

30,000.00

54,000.00

GEN.SURG101

Proctoscopy (and biopsy)

15,000.00

24,000.00

GEN.SURG102

Suprapubic cystostomy

20,000.00

36,000.00

GEN.SURG103

Testicular biopsy

20,000.00

24,000.00

GEN.SURG104

Adult circumcision

20,000.00

40,000.00

GEN.SURG105

Paediatric circumcision

25,000.00

30,000.00

GEN.SURG106

Incision & drainage

20,000.00

40,000.00

GEN.SURG107

Vasectomy

12,000.00

18,000.00

M003 : NEUROSURGERY

A) Complex Major

—

—

NEURO01

Craniotomy for aneurysm

144,000.00

360,000.00

NEURO02

Craniotomy for AV malformation

144,000.00

300,000.00

NEURO03

Cranitomy for brain tumour

144,000.00

300,000.00

NEURO04

Posterior fossa surgery

180,000.00

360,000.00

B) Major I

—

—

NEURO05

Microdiscectomy

96,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO06

Anterior cervical discectomy

96,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO07

Anterior cervical fusion - AO plating

108,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO08

Craniotomy for intracelebral haematoma

96,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO09

Glioma

96,000.00

192,000.00

NEURO10

Extradural haematoma

96,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO11

Subdural haematoma

96,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO12

Laminectomy for cervical / thoracic / or lumbar spine

108,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO13

Spinal fusions with implants

120,000.00

240,000.00

NEURO14

Lumbar fusion / spondylosis /disc procedure

120,000.00

240,000.00

NEURO15

Excision of intracranial nerve lesions

108,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO16

Repair of dura

72,000.00

132,000.00

C) Major II

NEURO17

Burr hole(s) for

NEURO18

Subdural haematoma

NEURO19

Brain abscess

72,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO20

Biopsy procedure

72,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO21

ICP monitoring/VP shunt

72,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO22

Excision of spinal tumours

108,000.00

216,000.00

NEURO23

Acrylic cranioplasty

120,000.00

180,000.00

NEURO24

Stereotactic intracranial procedure

96,000.00

210,000.00

NEURO25

Clipping of cerebral artery

48,000.00

144,000.00

NEURO26

Elevation of depressed skull fracture

60,000.00

120,000.00

NEURO27

Application of skull callipers

54,000.00

84,000.00

NEURO28

Spina bifida surgery

96,000.00

144,000.00

D) Intermediate I

NEURO29

Microsurgical nerve graft / nerve repair/exploration/microsurgical anastomosis

48,000.00

108,000.00

E) Intermediate II

NEURO30

Surgical toilet and repair of major scalp wounds / lacerations

18,000.00

48,000.00

NEURO31

Surgical toilet for scalp tumour

48,000.00

96,000.00

NEURO32

Ventricular / cisternal puncture

12,000.00

24,000.00

F) Minor (LA)

NEURO33

Repair minor scalp wounds /lacerations

12,000.00

30,000.00

NEURO34

Lumbar puncture

12,000.00

24,000.00

M004 : UROLOGICAL SURGERY

A) Complex Major

UROS01

Percutaneous nephrostomy

120,000.00

168,000.00

UROS02

Ureteroscopic extraction of calculus in ureter flexible

144,000.00

216,000.00

UROS03

Ureteroscopic extraction of calculus in ureter - rigid

144,000.00

216,000.00

UROS04

Bilateral orchidectomy

120,000.00

210,000.00

UROS05

Laparoscopic orchidectomy

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS06

Primary repair of incisional hernia

60,000.00

90,000.00

UROS07

Primary repair of incisional hernia laparoscopic

80,000.00

120,000.00

UROS08

Repair of previous incision in abdominal wall

60,000.00

100,000.00

UROS09

Repair of kidney wound

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS10

Repair of vesico-colic fistula

180,000.00

360,000.00

UROS11

Repair of injury to penis

180,000.00

240,000.00

UROS12

Transplantation of kidney

240,000.00

360,000.00

UROS13

Radical nephrectomy

240,000.00

360,000.00

UROS14

Radical nephrectomy laparoscopic

240,000.00

360,000.00

UROS15

Nephro-ureterectomy

240,000.00

360,000.00

UROS16

Open removal of calculus from kidney

180,000.00

300,000.00

UROS17

Construction of ileal conduit

240,000.00

360,000.00

UROS18

Bilateral re-implantation of ureter into bladder

180,000.00

360,000.00

UROS19

Bilateral re-implantation of ureter into bowel

144,000.00

300,000.00

UROS20

Orchidopexy bilateral

144,000.00

240,000.00

UROS21

Repair of recurrent femoral hernia

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS22

Repair of recurrent femoralhernia laparoscopic

48,000.00

90,000.00

UROS23

Drainage of kidney

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS24

Drainage of pyonesphrosis

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS25

Excision of segment of ureter

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS26

Cystoscopy turp

144,000.00

216,000.00

UROS27

External meatotomy

36,000.00

96,000.00

UROS28

Excision of lesion of testes

60,000.00

108,000.00

UROS29

Reconstruction of penis

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS31

Bilateral herniotomy

48,000.00

108,000.00

UROS32

Laparotomy for post-operative

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS33

Ileal or colonic replacement of ureter

180,000.00

360,000.00

UROS34

Repair of recurrent inguinal hernia - bilateral

96,000.00

192,000.00

UROS35

Repair of recurrent inguinal hernia - bilateral lap

90,000.00

180,000.00

UROS36

PCNL per track

144,000.00

204,000.00

UROS37

Emergency laparotomy

90,000.00

120,000.00

UROS38

Radical prostatectomy

180,000.00

360,000.00

UROS39

Radical prostatectomy lapaoscopic

180,000.00

360,000.00

UROS40

Operations on ureteric orifice

36,000.00

60,000.00

UROS41

Cystostomy and insertion of SP catheter

60,000.00

84,000.00

UROS42

Panendoscopy laser urethrotomy

48,000.00

72,000.00

UROS43

Orchidectomy & excision of spermatic cord

60,000.00

96,000.00

UROS44

Hydrocele repair

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS45

Adult circumcision

18,000.00

36,000.00

UROS46

Paediatric circumcision

18,000.00

36,000.00

UROS47

Ureteroscopy (diagnostic)

60,000.00

84,000.00

UROS48

Ureteroscopy (diagnostic) flexible

60,000.00

84,000.00

UROS49

Repair of ruptured urethra

96,000.00

132,000.00

UROS50

Excision of epididymal cyst

48,000.00

84,000.00

UROS51

Operation on varicocele laparoscopic

72,000.00

96,000.00

UROS52

Endoscopic insertion of prosthesis in ureter

48,000.00

72,000.00

UROS53

Endoscopic extraction of bladder calculus

96,000.00

132,000.00

UROS54

Excision of lesion of skin or subcutaneous tissue

12,000.00

24,000.00

UROS55

Unilateral herniotomy

24,000.00

54,000.00

UROS57

Primary repair of femoral hernia

24,000.00

60,000.00

UROS58

Primary repair of femoral hernia laparoscopic

30,000.00

72,000.00

UROS59

Repair of peri-umbilical hernia - reducible

48,000.00

84,000.00

UROS60

Repair of peri-umbilical hernia - irreducible

60,000.00

108,000.00

UROS61

Operation for peyronies disease

90,000.00

120,000.00

UROS62

Injection intracavernosal

12,000.00

30,000.00

UROS63

Catheterisation

10,000.00

24,000.00

UROS64

Dressing

4,000.00

6,000.00

UROS65

Aspiration of subcutaneous haematoma

12,000.00

18,000.00

UROS66

Injection into subcutaneous tissue/painful Trig.

12,000.00

24,000.00

UROS67

Introduction of substance into skin

6,000.00

12,000.00

UROS68

Incision & drainage

12,000.00

18,000.00

UROS69

Endoscopic hydrodisention of bladder

12,000.00

30,000.00

UROS70

Biopsy of lesion of penis

24,000.00

48,000.00

UROS71

Diathermic excision of warts or subcutaneous tissue

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS72

Removal of D J Stent

12,000.00

36,000.00

UROS73

Ureteric meatotomy

60,000.00

120,000.00

UROS74

Cystoscopy (Incl biopsy)

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS75

Excision of urethral caruncle

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS76

Meatoplasty

48,000.00

96,000.00

UROS77

Orchidopexy abdominal

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS78

Open pyeloplasty

180,000.00

300,000.00

UROS79

Dilatation of female bladder outlet

36,000.00

72,000.00

UROS80

Urethoplasty simple

120,000.00

180,000.00

UROS81

Urethoplasty complex

180,000.00

240,000.00

UROS82

Repair of bladder

120,000.00

300,000.00

UROS83

Cystoscopy rigid uretero, nephroscopy, laser lithotripsy

120,000.00

300,000.00

UROS84

Cystoscopy flexible uretero, nephroscopy, laser lithotripsy

120,000.00

300,000.00

UROS85

Combined abdominal and vaginal operations on bladder

180,000.00

300,000.00

UROS86

Endoscopic resection of lesion inbladder

96,000.00

192,000.00

UROS87

Retropubic suspension of bladder neck

84,000.00

144,000.00

M005 : PLASTIC AND RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERY

PRS01

Cleaning and dressing of burn wounds under G.A.

60,000.00

120,000.00

PRS02

Excision of a single lump or uncomplicated keloid growth under L.A

40,000.00

50,000.00

PRS03

Single partial thickness graft under L.A.

50,000.00

60,000.00

PRS04

Revision of a single scar under L.A.

50,000.00

60,000.00

PRS05

Major pressure sores debridement

50,000.00

70,000.00

PRS06

Excision of multiple growths or complicated keloid growth and reconstruction under G.A.

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS07

Single partial thickness graft under G.A.

90,000.00

100,000.00

PRS08

Single partial thickness graft following excision of ulcer or growth under G.A.

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS09

Full thickness grafting under G.A.

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS10

Revision of multiple scars under G.A.

120,000.00

160,000.00

PRS11

Syndactyly/polydactyly correction ( single )

80,000.00

120,000.00

PRS12

Syndactyly/polydactyly correction (multiple)

140,000.00

180,000.00

PRS13

Lipoma (less than 5cm) under LA

60,00.00

80,000.00

PRS14

Lipoma (more than 5cm) under GA

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS15

Gynaecomastia

150,000.00

180,000.00

PRS16

Ganglion under GA

80,000.00

90,000.00

PRS17

Sebaceous cyst

50,000.00

70,000.00

PRS18

Surgical toilet (minor) under GA

50,000.00

70,000.00

PRS19

Excision of lesions (single site & reconstruction) under LA

60,000.00

80,000.00

PRS20

Excision of lesions (multiple sites & reconstruction ) under GA

100,000.00

150,000.00

PRS21

Blepharoplasty

150,000.00

180,000.00

PRS22

Anterior canthotomy & Z-plasty under GA

120,000.00

140,000.00

PRS23

Nerve release and decompression under GA

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS24

Tissue expander insertion

120,000.00

150,000.00

PRS25

Tissue expander removal and advancement

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS26

Lip reconstruction

100,000.00

150,000.00

PRS27

Digit reconstruction under GA

100,000.00

150,000.00

PRS28

Multiple contracture release or major

150,000.00

180,000.00

PRS29

Neck contracture & skin grafting under GA

PRS30

Dermabrasion/Chemical peel/Laser

100,000.00

180,000.00

PRS31

Fat injection for scar repair

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS32

Tendon/muscle repair extensor - single under GA

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS33

Tendon/muscle repair flexor - single under GA

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS34

Tendon repair - multiple under GA

120,000.00

150,000.00

PRS35

Tendon repair - Achilles tendon under GA

160,000.00

180,000.00

PRS36

Tendon transfer

150,000.00

180,000.00

PRS37

Brow lift

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS38

Re-plantation (team charges)

600,000.00

800,000.00

PRS39

Ectropion/entropion correction - single under GA

120,000.00

150,000.00

PRS40

Ectropion/entropion correction - bilateral under GA

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS41

Buttock lift

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS42

Thigh lift

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS43

Release of minor contractures under GA

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS44

Advancement flaps reconstruction under G.A.

120,000.00

180,000.00

PRS45

Unilateral cleft lip repair under G.A.

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS46

Bilateral cleft lip repair under G.A.

100,000.00

150,000.00

PRS47

Cleft palate repair under G.A.

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS48

Bilateral cleft lip & palate repair under GA

150,000.00

300,000.00

PRS49

Rotational myocutaneous flap reconstruction of pressure sores

200,000.00

250,000.00

PRS50

Fingertip injuries – advancement flaps or cross finger flaps

120,000.00

150,000.00

PRS51

Liposuction (Single site)

90,000.00

220,000.00

PRS52

Augmentation Mammoplasty (Bilateral)

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS53

Reduction Mammoplasty (Bilateral)

200,000.00

400,000.00

PRS54

Face-lift (limited)

216,000.00

300,000.00

PRS55

Face-lift (extended)

360,000.00

420,000.00

PRS56

Reconstruction of breast (using latissmuss dorsi flap)

220,000.00

300,000.00

PRS57

Reconstruction of breast (using TRAM flap)

250,000.00

350,000.00

PRS58

Major flap reconstruction of head and neck

250,000.00

300,000

PRS59

Free-flap reconstruction (Team charges)

600,000.00

800,000.00

PRS60

Reconstruction of the hand (groin flap – reversed radial etc)

150,000.00

180,000.00

PRS61

Rhinoplasty

300,000.00

400,000.00

PRS62

Auriculoplasty (per stage)

250,000.00

300,000.00

PRS63

Abdominoplasty (mini)

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS64

Abdominoplasty (full)

300,000.00

360,000.00

PRS65

Rotational flap for compound fracture

160,000.00

190,000.00

PRS66

Rotational flap for pressure sores

200,000.00

220,000.00

PRS67

Pedicle flap

120,000.00

180,000.00

PRS68

Hair transplant

300,000.00

400,000.00

PRS69

Lipoplasty including autologus fat grafting

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS70

Brachioplasty - bilateral

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS71

Inverted nipple correction

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS72

Labioplasty

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS73

Vaginoplasty

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS74

Augmentoplasty

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS75

Excision of malignant tumours (BCC, SCC, MM) & reconstruction under GA

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS76

Excision of malignant tumours (BCC, SCC, MM) & reconstruction under GA

150,000.00

200,000.00

PRS77

Corrective procedures for female genital anomalies

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS78

Surgical treatment of vulvovaginal tumours

300,000.00

400,000.00

PRS79

Surgical treatment of penile tumours

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS80

Correction of asymmetric breast (including Poland syndrome)

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS81

Correction of tuberous breast

200,000.00

300,000.00

PRS82

Surgical treatment of Fournier gangrene

120,000.00

140,000.00

PRS83

Surgical treatment of amputations (ear, nose, lids, lip, eyebrow, scalp) with reconstruction

200,000.00

250,000.00

PRS84

Static support in facial palsy

100,000.00

120,000.00

PRS85

Dynamic support in facial palsy including free muscle flap

150,000.00

200,000

PRS86

Nerve grafting in facial palsy

200,000.00

220,000.00

PRS87

Brachial Plexus repair

300,000.00

600,00

PRS88

Otoplasty (surgery for bat ear)-bilateral

80,000.00

100,000.00

PRS89

Wound dressings - clinic

15,000.00

20,000.00

PRS90

Wound dressings - ward

25,000.00

50,000.00

M006: ORTHOPAEDIC SURGERY

A. Complex Major

PROCEDURE

1. ARTHROPLASTY

ORTHOS01

1.1. Hemiarthroplasty

72,000.00

96,000.00

ORTHOS02

1.2 Primary Joint Replacement

120,000.00

216,000.00

ORTHOS03

1.3 Revision Joint Replacement

240,000.00

420,000.00

2. SPINE PROCEDURES

ORTHOS04

2.1. Discectomies (open & endoscopic)

144,000.00

240,000.00

ORTHOS05

2.1.1. Cervical

144,000.00

240,000.00

ORTHOS06

2.1.2. Thoracolumbar

108,000.00

180,000.00

ORTHOS07

ORTHOS08

2.2. Laminectomy (without instrumentation)

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS09

2.3. Laminectomy (without instrumentation)

144,000.00

240,000.00

ORTHOS10 2.4.

Kyphoplasty/ vertebroplasty

144,000.00

216,000.00

ORTHOS11

2.5. Complex deformity corrections including Scoliosis, High cervical stabilization

240,000.00

420,000.00

3. LIMB RECONSTRUCTION

ORTHOS12

3.1 Microsurgical procedures(digit reattachment & transfers)

180,000.00

300,000.00

ORTHOS13

3.2 Prosthesis - fitting surgery

180,000.00

300,000.00

4. COMPLEX FRACTURE FIXATION

ORTHOS14

4.1 Pelvis

144,000.00

180,000.00

ORTHOS15

4.2 Elbow

96,000.00

144,000.00

B: MAJOR I

1.0 ARTHROSCOPIC SURGERY

ORTHOS016

1.1 Diagnostic

48,000.00

96,000.00

ORTHOS017

1.2 Corrective/ Reconstruction

90,000.00

180,000.00

2.0. OPEN REDUCTION & INTERNAL FIXATION

ORTHOS018

2.1. Long bones

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS020

2.3. Ankle and foot

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS021

3.0. OPEN REDUCTION & EXTERNAL FIXATION

48,000.00

96,000.00

4.0. CLOSED REDUCTION & FIXATION

ORTHOS022

4.1. Minimal Invasive percutaneous osteosynthesis

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS023

4.2. Imaging guided wire/ screw fixation

72,000.00

144,000.00

5.0. JOINT NON-PROSTHETIC STABILIZATION

ORTHOS024

5.1. Open stabilization procedures

72,000.00

144,000.00

6.0. TENDON SURGERY

ORTHOS025

6.1 Tendon repair

ORTHOS026

6.1.1. Multiple

108,000.00

180,000.00

ORTHOS027

6.1.2. Single

72,000.00

108,000.00

ORTHOS028

6.2 Tendon transfer

90,000.00

180,000.00

ARTHROTOMY (Interventional)

ORTHOS029

7.1. Small joint

36,000.00

72,000.00

ORTHOS030

7.2. Large joint

84,000.00

120,000.00

C: MAJOR II

1. AMPUTATIONS

ORTHOS031

1.1 Major amputation

36,000.00

120,000.00

ORTHOS032

1.2. Minor (finger, toe)

18,000.00

48,000.00

3. CORRECTIVE SURGERY

3.1. HAND & FOOT DEFORMITIES

ORTHOS035

3.1.1.Moderate/ severe deformity

60,000.00

108,000.00

ORTHOS036

3.1.2.Minor deformity

36,000.00

48,000.00

3.2. OSTEOTOMIES (Excluding spine)

—

—

ORTHOS037

3.2.1. With casting

60,000.00

84,000.00

ORTHOS038

3.2.2. With ORIF

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS039

3.2.3. With External fixation (Ilizarov)

72,000.00

144,000.00

ORTHOS040

4. NERVE EXPLORATION & REPAIR

72,000.00

120,000.00

ORTHOS041

5. BONE GRAFT (without additional procedure)

48,000.00

96,000.00

ORTHOS042

6. SOFT TISSUE RELEASE

48,000.00

84,000.00

ORTHOS043

7. Open Ligament repair

60,000.00

84,000.00

ORTHOS044

8. Major tumour excision

72,000.00

144,000.00

D. INTERMEDIATE EXCISION SURGERY

ORTHOS045

1.0 Sequestrectomy (excluding spine)

48,000.00

96,000.00

ORTHOS046

2.0 Excisional arthroplasty - isolated

60,000.00

84,000.00

ORTHOS047

Excisional arthroplasty - with replacement (Replacement fees apply)

ORTHOS048

3.0 Fasciectomy

36,000.00

60,000.00

ORTHOS049

4.0 Major surgical debridement

60,000.00

96,000.00

E. MINOR

ORTHOS050

1.0 Closed fracture/ joint reduction under GA & casting

36,000.00

60,000.00

2.0 MINOR EXCISIONS/ BIOPSY

ORTHOS051

2.1 Small lesions under GA

24,000.00

42,000.00

ORTHOS052

2.2 Surgical debridement

36,000.00

48,000.00

ORTHOS053

3.0 REMOVAL OF A FOREIGN BODY FROM A JOINT

24,000.00

48,000.00

4.0 REMOVAL OF IMPLANTS

ORTHOS054

4.1 Spine & complex pelvis

48,000.00

84,000.00

ORTHOS055

4.2 Long and short bones

24,000.00

60,000.00

ORTHOS056

5.0 Application of cast without anaesthesia/ traction systems

6,000.00

24,000.00

M007 : CARDIOTHORACIC AND VASCULAR SURGERY

—

—

A) Complex Major

—

—

CARVS01

Pleurectomy / decortication

108,000.00

168,000.00

CARVS02

Pericardectomy

108,000.00

168,000.00

CARVS03

Vessel bypass surgery

138,000.00

180,000.00

CARVS04

Coronary angioplasty / stent

216,000.00

270,000.00

CARVS05

Oesophagectomy

144,000.00

270,000.00

CARVS06

Splenorenal shunt

84,000.00

132,000.00

CARVS07

Portocaval shunt

84,000.00

132,000.00

CARVS08

Excision of carotid body tumour

90,000.00

180,000.00

CARVS09

Closed valvotomy

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS10

Mitral valvotomy / baloon

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS11

Open heart surgery

180,000.00

360,000.00

CARVS12

Pneumonectomy / lobectomy

126,000.00

240,000.00

CARVS13

Surgery for achalasia of cardia

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS14

Vascular amputation

90,000.00

180,000.00

CARVS15

Aneurysm repair

132,000.00

216,000.00

CARVS16

Repair of traumatic arterial transection

90,000.00

144,000.00

CARVS17

Thoracotomy

54,000.00

156,000.00

CARVS18

Resection of complex AV fistula

90,000.00

144,000.00

CARVS19

Subfascial DVT ligation + skin graft

72,000.00

126,000.00

CARVS20

Thromboembolectomy

72,000.00

132,000.00

CARVS21

Carotid arterectomy

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS22

PDA ligation

90,000.00

138,000.00

B) Major

CARVS023

Insertion of MB tube

72,000.00

144,000.00

CARVS024

Mediastinoscopy

90,000.00

144,000.00

CARVS025

Thoracoscopy

72,000.00

120,000.00

CARVS026

Minithoracotomy for open lung biopsy

72,000.00

12,000.00

Pacemaker implantation

CARVS027

Single

108,000.00

126,000.00

CARVS028

Dual

180,000.00

216,000.00

CARVS029

Excision of mediastinal tumour

108,000.00

144,000.00

CARVS030

Ligation / stripping of varicose veins

54,000.00

90,000.00

CARVS031

Myocardial biopsy

36,000.00

60,000.00

CARVS032

Thymectomy

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS033

Pericardial window

54,000.00

96,000.00

CARVS034

Resection of simple AV fistula

54,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS035

Rib resection for thoracic outlet syndrome

90,000.00

132,000.00

C) Intermediate

CARVS036

Bronchoscopy and removal of FB

CARVS037

Oesophagoscopy biopsy / dilatation / removal of FB

48,000.00

96,000.00

CARVS038

Feeding gastrostomy / jejunostomy

48,000.00

108,000.00

CARVS039

Other rib resection

18,000.00

36,000.00

CARVS040

Pericardial catheterisation

24,000.00

60,000.00

CARVS041

Repair of ruptured diaphram

48,000.00

96,000.00

D) Minor

CARVS042

Insertion of chest tube / chest aspiration

8,400.00

18,000.00

CARVS043

Pericardiocentesis

8,400.00

18,000.00

CARVS044

Pulmonary artery catherisation

6,000.00

12,000.00

M008: CARDIOLOGY

CARD01

2 D echocardiogram

14,400.00

18,000.00

CARD02

12 Lead ECG

3,600.00

4,800.00

CARD03

24 hour holter

12,000.00

14,400.00

CARD04

Pericardiocentesis

36,000.00

48,000.00

CARD05

Pacemaker insertion

60,000.00

72,000.00

Out patient

CARD06

Consultation

6,000.00

9,000.00

CARD07

Urgent consultation

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD08

ECG (with interpretation)

3,000.00

4,800.00

CARD09

Echocardiogram

14,400.00

18,000.00

CARD010

Echocardiogram - portable

18,000.00

21,600.00

CARD011

Exercise stress test

14,400.00

21,600.00

CARD012

24 hour holter

14,400.00

18,000.00

CARD013

24 hour ambulatory BP

18,000.00

30,000.00

CARD014

Pacemaker check

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD015

ICD /CRTD check

12,000.00

18,000.00

CARD016

Pulmonary function tests

9,600.00

12,000.00

CARD017

Transoesophaegeal echo

24,000.00

48,000.00

Inpatient

CARD018

Emergency A&E

14,400.00

18,000.00

CARD019

ICU/HDU care

12,000.00

21,600.00

CARD020

Ward (per day)

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD021

Resuscitation

18,000.00

24,000.00

CARD022

Right heart catheter

48,000.00

84,000.00

CARD023

Coronary angiogram

60,000.00

96,000.00

CARD024

Coronary PCI - per vessel (50% for additional vessel)

144,000.00

210,000.00

CARD025

Coronary thrombectomy (aspiration)

36,000.00

48,000.00

CARD026

Coronary FFR/IVU

36,000.00

48,000.00

CARD027

Loop recorder implantation

36,000.00

48,000.00

CARD028

ICD implantation

240,000.00

300,000.00

CARD029

CRTD implantation

240,000.00

300,000.00

CARD030

IVC filter

36,000.00

48,000.00

CARD031

DC cardioversion

24,000.00

48,000.00

CARD032

CVP insertion

30,000.00

42,000.00

CARD033

Intra-aortic ballon pump insertion

48,000.00

90,000.00

CARD034

Intra-aortic ballon pump per day

30,000.00

54,000.00

Cardiac catheterization

CARD035

Right heart catheterization including measurement of oxygen saturation pulmonary pressures and cardiac output

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD036

Left heart catheterization

36,000.00

60,000.00

CARD037

Diagnostic right and left heart catheterization

72,000.00

84,000.00

CARD038

Catheter placement & coronary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation

48,000.00

72,000.00

CARD039

Coronary angiography with catheter placement(s) in bypass graft(s) internal mammary, arterial, venous graft) including intraprocedural injections for bypass graft angiography

72,000.00

96,000.00

CARD040

Coronary angiography with right heart catheterization

84,000.00

108,000.00

CARD041

Coronary angiography with bypass graft angiography and right heart catheterization

96,000.00

120,000.00

CARD042

Trans septal puncture

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD043

Pharmacological study

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD044

Injection right ventricle or right atrial angiography, imaging and supervision

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD045

Injection supravalvular aortography imaging supervision and interpretation

18,000.00

30,000.00

CARD046

Injection for pulmonary angiography, imaging supervision and interpretation

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD047

Insertion of arterial closure device (eg angioseal, starclose, per close

3,000.00

9,000.00

Non-invasive cardiopulmonary testing

CARD048

Performing and interpretation of the resting 12 lead ECG

1,800.00

3,600.00

CARD049

Performing and interpretation of the cardiovascular stress ECG, supervision and report

14,400.00

21,600.00

CARD050

24 hour ambulatory ECG/holter with monitoring and interpretation and report

12,000.00

18,000.00

CARD051

24 hour ambulatory BP measurement, analysis and interpretation and report

12,000.00

18,000.00

CARD052

Spirometry including graphic report

6,000.00

9,000.00

CARD053

Spirometry, for bronchospasm evaluation: before and after bronchodilator

7,200.00

9,600.00

CARD054

Tilt-table testing for syncope evaluation

6,000.00

9,000.00

Percutaneous coronary intervention

CARD055

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty, single vessel

120,000.00

180,000.00

CARD056

Percutaneous transluminal coronary, each additional vessel

60,000.00

96,000.00

CARD057

Transcatheter placement of intracoronary stent, percutaneous initial vessel

144,000.00

210,000.00

CARD058

Transcatheter placement of intracoronary stent, each additional vessel

72,000.00

108,000.00

CARD059

Aspiration thrombectomy of intracoronary thrombus

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD060

Intracoronary physiology studies, fractional flow reserve

30,000.00

48,000.00

CARD061

Intracoronary ultrasound studies, IVUS

30,000.00

48,000.00

Pacemakers

CARD062

Permanent single chamber insertion

84,000.00

120,000.00

CARD063

Permanent - dual chamber insertion

120,000.00

180,000.00

CARD064

Insertion of implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD)

180,000.00

240,000.00

CARD065

Insertion of biventricular cardiac resynchronization device

300,000.00

42,000.00

CARD066

Defibrillation threshold testing during or after implantation of ICD device

30,000.00

4,800.00

CARD067

Insertion of temporary transvenous pacemaker

36,000.00

60,000.00

CARD068

Programming of atrio-ventibular sequential pacemaker or single chamber pacemaker (eg DDD,VVI)

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD069

Programming of ICD (implantable cardiacdefibrillator)

12,000.00

15,000.00

CARD070

Renewal of pacemaker generator (battery change)

42,000.00

72,000.00

CARD071

Insertion of implantable loop recorder

36,000.00

60,000.00

CARD072

Syncrhonized DC cardioversion for unstable technyarrhythmia

18,000.00

30,000.00

Structural heart disease interventional procedures

CARD073

Atrial septostomy

96,000.00

120,000.00

CARD074

Pulmonary valve valvuloplasty

96,000.00

144,000.00

CARD075

Aortic valve valvuloplasty

96,000.00

144,000.00

CARD076

Mitral valve valvuloplasty, percutaeous balloon

96,000.00

144,000.00

CARD077

Coarctation of the aorta, percutaneous balloon dilatation

108,000.00

72,000.00

CARD078

Closure of atrial septal defect

96,000.00

144,000.00

CARD079

Closure of patent ductus arteriosus

90,000.00

144,000.00

CARD080

Pericardiocentesis without drainage, diagnostic

9,000.00

18,000.00

CARD081

Pericardiocentesis with catheter draining, therapeutic

24,000.00

42,000.00

Specialist consultations and inpatient visits

CARD082

Cardiology specialist office consultation initial visit during normal office hours

4,800.00

9,600.00

CARD083

Cardiology specialist casualty/emergency room consultation, initial visit

9,000.00

12,000.00

CARD084

Cardiology specialist hospital consultation, intensive care unit initial visit

12,000.00

18,000.00

CARD085

Cardiology specialist hospital consultation, medical or surgical ward, initial visit

6,000.00

10,800.00

CARD086

Cardiology specialist hospital, ICU follow up visit

9,000.00

10,800.00

CARD087

Cardiology specialist hospital, high dependency unit, follow up visit

6,000.00

10,800.00

CARD088

Cardiology specialist hospital, medical or surgical ward, follow up visit

4,800.00

9,600.00

CARD089

Emergency cardiac resuscitation

18,000.00

30,000.00

CARD090

Microlaryngeal surgery

144,000.00

180,000.00

CARD091

Microlaryngoscopy

72,000.00

120,000.00

CARD092

Intranasal ethmoidectomy

90,000.00

120,000.00

CARD093

Cochlea operations

90,000.00

144,000.00

CARD094

Middle ear tumour excision

144,000.00

180,000.00

M009 : EAR, NOSE AND THROAT SURGERY

A) Major I

ENT01

Excision of thyroglossal cyst /duct

90,000.00

132,000.00

ENT02

Excision of submandibular salivary gland

72,000.00

108,000.00

ENT03

Excision of branchial cyst / sinus / fistula

90,000.00

144,000.00

ENT04

Caldwell-Luc procedure

72,000.00

120,000.00

ENT05

T.I.T. and turbinoplasty

54,000.00

84,000.00

ENT06

T.I.T. and intranasal antrostomy

72,000.00

108,000.00

ENT07

Tonsillectomy ( adult )

54,000.00

108,000.00

ENT08

Submucous resection of nasal septum

72,000.00

144,000.00

ENT09

Urulopalatopharyngoplasty

54,000.00

144,000.00

Bat Ears reduction:

ENT010

Unilateral

72,000.00

108,000.00

ENT011

Bilateral

90,000.00

144,000.00

ENT012

Lateral rhinotomy

108,000.00

144,000.00

ENT013

Laryngocele excision

108,000.00

144,000.00

ENT014

Maxillary artery ligation

108,000.00

156,000.00

ENT015

Meatoplasty

90,000.00

132,000.00

ENT016

Transplatatal excision of choanal atresia

126,000.00

168,000.00

ENT017

Vocal cord lateralisation

90,000.00

126,000.00

B) Intermediate I

ENT018

Bronchoscopy and removal of FB

72,000.00

108,000.00

ENT019

Excision of head and neck lipoma

72,000.00

132,000.00

ENT020

Tracheostomy

48,000.00

72,000.00

ENT021

Adenoidectomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

ENT022

Adenotonsillectomy (Ts 7 As )

60,000.00

96,000.00

ENT023

Tonsillectomy ( paediatric )

60,000.00

120,000.00

ENT024

Direct laryngoscopy and biopsy

60,000.00

84,000.00

ENT025

Myringotomy

18,000.00

36,000.00

ENT026

Myringoplasty

18,000.00

48,000.00

ENT027

Nasal polypectomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

ENT028

Oesophagoscopy and removal of FB

60,000.00

96,000.00

ENT029

EUA and biopsy of nasopharynx, eas, nose

48,000.00

96,000.00

ENT030

Intranasal antrostomy

36,000.00

96,000.00

C) Intermediate II

ENT031

Incision + drainage head and neck abscess (I&D)

30,000.00

48,000.00

ENT032

Pharyngeal abscess drainage

36,000.00

72,000.00

ENT033

Preauricular sinus excision

36,000.00

72,000.00

ENT034

Bilateral antronasal washout (BAWO)

36,000.00

60,000.00

D) Minor

ENT035

MUA # nose

12,000.00

30,000.00

ENT036

Antral and nasal packing

12,000.00

30,000.00

ENT037

Release of tongue tie

12,000.00

30,000.00

ENT038

Chemical cauterisation of the nose

12,000.00

30,000.00

ENT039

Diathermy and reduction of septum

8,400.00

24,000.00

ENT040

Nasal / tonsillar cautery

18,000.00

36,000.00

ENT041

Cervical lymph node biopsy

30,000.00

30,000.00

ENT042

Removal of FB in ear or nose

8,400.00

18,000.00

ENT043

Removal of wax from external ears ( syringing )

6,000.00

12,000.00

M010 OPHTHALMOLOGY

Diagnostic Tests

OPHT01

Tonometery per eye

1,200.00

1,800.00

OPHT02

Pachymetery per eye

1,800.00

2,400.00

OPHT03

Gonioscopy per eye

1,800.00

2,400.00

OPHT04

Retinal photography per eye

1,800.00

2,400.00

OPHT05

Flourescein Angiography

12,000.00

18,000.00

OPHT06

Visual Fields per eye

2,400.00

3,000.00

OPHT07

Ocular Coherent Tomography Scan per eye

6,000.00

6,600.00

OPHT08

Corneal Topography per eye

2,400.00

3,000.00

OPHT09

Ultrasound per eye

6,000.00

7,200.00

OPHT10

Visual Fields per eye

2,400.00

3,600.00

OPHT11

Biometry per eye

3,600.00

4,800.00

OPHT12

Oculyzer per eye

3,600.00

4,800.00

OPHT13

Retinoscopy

1,800.00

3,600.00

OPHT14

Endothelia Cell count per eye

2,400.00

3,600.00

OPHT15

Dressing

3,600.00

4,800.00

OPHT16

Optical coherence tomography (OCT)

5,000.00

8,000.00

OPHT17

Topography

5,000.00

8,000.00

OPHT18

Tomography

5,000.00

8,000.00

ORBIT AND ACCULOPLASTICS

Lids

OPHT19

Entropion repair Moderate

48,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT20

Epiblepharon repair

24,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT21

Ectropion repair Moderate

48,000.00

70,000.00

OPHT22

Ptosis repair

60,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT23

Brow lift

36,000.00

100,000.00

OPHT24

Lid +/- canaliculi laceration repair

48,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT25

Lid tumour excision/incisional biopsy

72,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT26

Lid tumour excision + reconstruction

96,000.00

150,000.00

OPHT27

Tarsorrhaphy

24,000.00

30,000.00

OPHT28

Upper lid blepharoplasty

48,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT29

Lower lid blepharoplasty

48,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT30

Lid abscess I&D

24,000.00

100,000.00

OPHT31

Chalazion I&D

24,000.00

30,000.00

OPHT32

Epilation

6,000.00

10,000.00

OPHT33

Lash Electrolysis

24,000.00

30,000.00

Sockets

OPHT034

Evisceration

48,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT035

Evisceration + orbital implant

60,000.00

72,000.00

OPHT036

Enucleation

48,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT037

Enucleation + orbital implant

48,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT038

Socket/Fornix reconstruction

96,000.00

150,000.00

Orbit

OPHT039

Dermoid excision

72,000.00

96,000.00

OPHT040

Anterior orbitotomy

12,000.00

180,000.00

OPHT041

Lateral orbitotomy

12,000.00

180,000.00

OPHT042 X

Lateral orbitotomy

12,000.00

180,000.00

OPHT043

Orbital wall decompression

120,000.00

200,000.00

OPHT044

Mucocele incision and drainage

60,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT045

Exenteration Lacrimal

96,000.00

120,000.00

OPHT046

Punctoplasty

36,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT047

Syringing and probing (S&P)

24,000.00

40,000.00

OPHT048

Syringing, Probing & intubation

48,000.00

80,000.00

OPHT049

DCR

96,000.00

120,000.00

OPHT050

DCR + Jones tube

120,000.00

200,000.00

RETINA AND POSTERIOR SEGMENT SURGERY

Retina Photocoagulation

OPHT051

Central laser per session

15,000.00

40,000.00

OPHT052

PRP on slit lamp per session

20,000.00

40,000.00

OPHT053

PRP Laser indirect with parabulbar per eye per session

40,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT054

Laser retinopexy

48,000.00

72,000.00

OPHT055

Cyclo-Cryo per eye

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT056

Cyclo-photo per eye

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT057

Intra-vitreal injections

15,000.00

35,000.00

OPHT058

Posterior segment trauma surgery/repair

150,000.00

300,000.00

Surgical Procedures

OPHT059

Silicon Oil Removal

120,000.00

180,000.00

OPHT060

Cataract surgery with Silicon Oil removal

180,000.00

240,000.00

OPHT061

Posterior Vitrectomy with dropped intra ocular lens or vitreous foreign body

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT062

Posterior vitrectomy and gas

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT063

Posterior vitrectomy and oil

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT064

Posterior vitrectomy, Delamination and gas or oil

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT065

Combined Procedures (Vitrectomy, band or buckle, gas or oil)

300,000.00

360,000.00

OPHT066

Combine procedure (Posterior vitrectomy and cataract surgery and intraocular lens implant)

300,000.00

360,000.00

OPHT067

Combine procedure (Posterior vitrectomy, buckle or band and cataract surgery and intraocular lens implant)

300,000.00

360,000.00

OPHT068

Posterior Vitrectomy and Macula hole surgery

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT069

Retina Detachment surgery - Scleral buckle/Scleral Explant and Cryotherapy

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT070

Posterior Segment Trauma surgery/Repair

24,000.00

360,000.00

OPHT071

Scleral Buckle/Explant removal

84,000.00

120,000.00

PEDIATRIC OPHTHALMOLOGY AND SQUINTS

OPHT072

AC Reformation

12,000.00

18,000.00

OPHT073

AC wash out

18,000.00

24,000.00

OPHT074

Corneal FB removal

12,000.00

18,000.00

OPHT075

Corneal repair

60,000.00

120,000.00

OPHT076

EUA

18,000.00

24,000.00

OPHT077

Goniotomy

60,000.00

72,000.00

OPHT078

IOL exchange

72,000.00

960,000.00

OPHT079

Lensectomy and IOL

72,000.00

96,000.00

OPHT080

AC Membrane Removal

18,000.00

24,000.00

OPHT081

Pars Plana Posterior Capsulutomoy

36,000.00

48,000.00

OPHT082

Iridectomy/ Iridotomy

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT083

Pupilloplasty

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT084

Squint Repair Per Muscle

48,000.00

60,000.00

OPHT085

Every extra muscle

30,000.00

48,000.00

OPHT086

Optical Iridectomy

36,000.00

60,000.00

GLAUCOMA SURGERY

OPHT087

Trabeculectomy

60,000.00

96,000.00

OPHT088

Goniotomy

60,000.00

84,000.00

OPHT089

Combined Phaco/trab

120,000.00

144,000.00

OPHT090

Combined ECCE/Trab

120,000.00

144,000.00

OPHT091

Glaucoma Drainage Implants [GDI]

84,000.00

96,000.00

OPHT092

Combined Phaco/GDI

120,000.00

144,000.00

OPHT093

Surgical Iridectomy

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT094

EUA for congenital glaucoma

18,000.00

40,000.00

OPHT095

Bleb Revision

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT096

Cyclocryotherapy

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT097

Retrobulbar Alcohol

6,000.00

12,000.00

Lasers

OPHT098

Trabeculoplasty

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT099

Laser Peripheral Iridotomy

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT100

Trans-Scleral cyclophotocoagulation

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT101

Laser suturelysis

12,000.00

18,000.00

CORNEA AND ANTERIOR SEGMENT

OPHT102

Small Incision Cataract surgery with Implant

60,000.00

84,000.00

OPHT103

Phacoemulsification Cataract surgery with Implant

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT104

Combined Phacoemulsfication with Trab

120,000.00

144,000.00

OPHT105

Intraocular lens implant with vitrectomy

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT106

Perforating eye injury repair

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT107

Conjuctival lesion excision

24,000.00

36,000.00

OPHT108

Conjuctival lesion excision with graft

36,000.00

48,000.00

OPHT109

Corneal transplant (PKP)

180,000.00

24,000.00

OPHT110

Corneal Transplant (Lamellar Keratoplasty)

180,000.00

240,000.00

OPHT111

Triple Procedure (Corneal transplant+cataract surgery+ intraocular lens)

240,000.00

300,000.00

OPHT112

Elective Removal of Corneal Sutures - Theatre

12,000.00

24,000.00

OPHT113

Removal of Corneal Sutures - Slit Lamp

6,000.00

12,000.00

OPHT114

Corneal Ulcer Scrapping

6,000.00

12,000.00

OPHT115

Removal of Corneal Foreign Body

6,000.00

12,000.00

OPHT116

Cross Linking per eye

48,000.00

84,000.00

OPHT117

YAG posterior Capsulotomy per eye

6,000.00

12,000.00

OPHT118

Anterior Chamber Tap / injection

8,400.00

12,000.00

OPHT119

Subconjuctival/Subtenon Injection

8,400.00

12,000.00

REFRACTIVE SURGERIES

OPHT120

Pre-LASIK assesment

8,400.00

12,000.00

OPHT121

LASIK procedure per eye

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT122

Surface Ablation per eye

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT123

Intraocular Contact Lens per eye

84,000.00

108,000.00

OPHT124

Photokeratectomy (removal ofcorneal scar)

84,000.00

108,000.00

M011 : OBSTETRICS ANDGYNAECOLOGICALSURGERY

A) Complex Major

OBGYN01

Wertheim’s hysterectomy

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN02

Ovarian cancer resection (pelvic clearance)

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN03

Repair of vesicovaginal

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN04

Repair of rectovaginal fistula

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN04

Repair of rectovaginal fistula

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN05

AP colpoperineorrhaphy

180,000.00

360,000.00

OBGYN06

Repair of ruptured uterus /caesarian hysterectomy

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN07

Radical vulvectomy

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN08

Manchester repair

180,000.00

420,000.00

OBGYN09

Repair of pelvic floor

180,000.00

420,000.00

B) Major ILaparotomy:

OBGYN010

Tuboplasty

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN011

Hysterectomy ( abdominal )

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN012

Myomectomy

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN013

Ovarian cystectomy

120,000.00

240,000.00

OBGYN014

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

100,000.00

200,000.00

OBGYN015

Pelvic abscess

120,000.00

240,000.00

OBGYN016

Exploratory / adhesiolysis

120,000.00

240,000.00

OBGYN017

Ventrosuspension

120,000.00

240,000.00

OBGYN018

Salpingo – oopherectomy

120,000.00

240,000.00

OBGYN019

Endometriosis surgery

180,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN020

Metroplasty / uteroplasty

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN021

Simple vulvectomy

180,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN022

Vaginal hysterectomy

180,000.00

300,000.00

Operative Laparoscopy:

OBGYN023

Ovarian cystectomy / drilling

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN024

Ectopic pregnancy

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN025

Tuboplasty

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN026

Adhesiolysis

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN027

Endometriosis surgery

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN028

Myomectomy

144,000.00

300,000.00

OBGYN029

Hysterectomy

144,000.00

300,000.00

C) Major II

OBGYN030

Caesarian section

96,000.00

180,000.00

OBGYN031

Colposuspension + D&C

84,000.00

120,000.00

OBGYN032

Hysterotomy

84,000.00

120,000.00

OBGYN033

Laparoscopic bilateral tubal ligation

60,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN034

Diagnostic / dye laparoscopy + D&C

72,000.00

108,000.00

Operative Hysteroscopy

OBGYN035

Biopsy

48,000.00

72,000.00

OBGYN036

Retrieval of lost / fragmented IUCD

48,000.00

84,000.00

OBGYN037

Synechiolysis / septolysis

84,000.00

180,000.00

OBGYN038

Resection of submucous fibroid

84,000.00

180,000.00

OBGYN039

Avulsion of endometrial polyps

84,000.00

180,000.00

OBGYN040

Endometrial ablation

84,000.00

120,000.00

D) Intermediate I

OBGYN041

Resuturing of burst abdomen

24,000.00

60,000.00

Termination of pregnancy

OBGYN042

Medical

12,000.00

36,000.00

Surgical

OBGYN043

Before 12 weeks

36,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN044

After 12 weeks

60,000.00

120,000.00

OBGYN045

D & C hysterosalpingogram

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN046

D & C + cone biopsy

48,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN047

Manual removal of retained placenta

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN048

Postnatal tubal ligation

36,000.00

72,000.00

OBGYN049

Cerclage

36,000.00

48,000.00

OBGYN050

Mini-laparotomy for tubal ligation

36,000.00

72,000.00

OBGYN051

Vasectomy

12,000.00

24,000.00

OBGYN052

Marsupialisation of Batholins Cyst / abscess

24,000.00

36,000.00

OBGYN053

Menstrual regulation / MVA

12,000.00

24,000.00

E) Intermediate II

OBGYN054

Cervical cauterisation

24,000.00

36,000.00

OBGYN055

Fanton’s operation + D & C

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN056

Diagnostic D & C

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN057

Diagnostic hysteroscopy

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN058

Repair of cervical tears

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN059

Cauterisation / excision ofvulval warts

24,000.00

36,000.00

OBGYN060

Cryotherapy

18,000.00

30,000.00

OBGYN061

Repair of broken episiotomy /third degree tear

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN062

Cone biospy of cervix

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN063

LLETZ ( loop excision )

36,000.00

60,000.00

OBGYN064

Normal delivery

36,000.00

72,000.00

OBGYN065

Augmented delivery

36,000.00

72,000.00

OBGYN066

Breech vaginal delivery

36,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN067

Assisted vaginal delivery (vacuum/ forceps)

48,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN068

Twin vaginal delivery

72,000.00

120,000.00

OBGYN069

Resuscitation of new born

12,000.00

24,000.00

F) Minor ( GA )

OBGYN070

Evacuation of uterus ( RPOC’s )

60,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN071

Examination under GA (EUA) / biopsy

36,000.00

96,000.00

OBGYN072

Colposcopy

30,000.00

60,000.00

G) Minor office based procedures )

OBGYN073

HVS collection

6,000.00

12,000.00

OBGYN074

Pap smear collection

3,600.00

7,200.00

OBGYN075

Norplant insertion / removals

6,000.00

12,000.00

OBGYN076 I

UCD insertion / removals

6,000.00

12,000.00

OBGYN077

IUCD retrieval ( lost IUCD’s )

6,000.00

12,000.00

OBGYN078

Endometrial biopsy

12,000.00

24,000.00

OBGYN079

External cephalic version

12,000.00

24,000.00

M012 : PAEDIATRIC SURGERY

A) Complex Major

PAEDS01

Small bowel atresia

60,000.00

180,000.00

PAEDS02

Thoracotomy ( oesophageal atresia )

60,000.00

240,000.00

PAEDS03

Biliary atresia ( Kasai Kimura procedures, porto –enterostomy )

90,000.00

240,000.00

PAEDS04

Nissen’s fundoplication

60,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS05

Gut duplications procedure

36,000.00

108,000.00

Hirschsprung’s disease procedure:

—

—

PAEDS06

a) Laparotomy, biopsy, colostomy

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS07

b) Abdominoperineal pull through (Soave, Swenson)

72,000.00

180,000.00

PAEDS08

c) Closure of colostomy

36,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS09

d) Rectal biopsies

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS10

Hellers cadiomyotomy

60,000.00

120,000.00

PAEDS11

Bladder neck reconstruction

96,000.00

240,000.00

PAEDS12

Urinary diversion

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS13

Rectosigmoidostomy

54,000.00

108,000.00

PAEDS14

Posterior sagittal anorectoplasty (PSARP ) for anorectal malformation

72,000.00

180,000.00

B) Major I

PAEDS015

Omphalocele

36,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS016

Splenectomy

60,000.00

108,000.00

Laparotomy:

PAEDS017

Intussusception

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS018

Volvulus

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS019

Malrotation & plication

60,000.00

120,000.00

PAEDS020

Tumours

72,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS021

Intestinal resection + anastomasis

60,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS022

Exploration of retroperitoneal mass

72,000.00

108,000.00

PAEDS023

Hemicolectomy

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS024

Excision of liver hydatid cyst

60,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS025

Nephrectomy

72,000.00

120,000.00

PAEDS026

Reflux hydrorephrosis ( re - implantation )

36,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS027

Urethroplasty for hypospadies and epispadies

60,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS028

Repair of fistula after urethroplasty

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS029

Thyroidectomy

24,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS030

Pyloric stenosis

60,000.00

120,000.00

PAEDS031

Pelvic ureteric junction obstruction (PUJO)

60,000.00

144,000.00

PAEDS032

Bladder calculi

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS033

Umbilicoplasty

36,000.00

72,000.00

PAEDS034

Mastectomy

36,000.00

84,000.00

C) Major II

PAEDS035

Colostomy

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS036

Gastrostomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

PAEDS037

Diagnostic laparotomy

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS038

Repair of inguinal hernia / hydrocele

24,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS038

Repair of inguinal hernia /hydrocele

24,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS039

Bilateral inguinal hernia

36,000.00

72,000.00

PAEDS040

Repair of diaphragmatic hernia

60,000.00

90,000.00

PAEDS041

Orchidopexy

24,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS042

Bilateral orchidopexy

36,000.00

96,000.00

D) Intermediate I

PAEDS043

Appendicectomy

36,000.00

84,000.00

PAEDS044

Resuturing of burst abdomen

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS045

Herniotomy + unilateral orchidectomy

54,000.00

90,000.00

PAEDS046

Herniotomy + unilateral orchidopexy

54,000.00

90,000.00

PAEDS047

Fistula in ano

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS048

Excision of pilonidal sinus

30,000.00

84,000.00

PAEDS049

Fissure in ano

18,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS050

Resection of posterior / anterior urethral valves

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS051

Torsion of testis

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS052

Extrophy of bladder ( repair )

96,000.00

240,000.00

PAEDS053

Cystic hygroma

48,000.00

96,000.00

PAEDS054

Excision of ganglion / lipoma

18,000.00

36,000.00

E) Intermediate II ( GA )

PAEDS055

Tracheostomy

48,000.00

72,000.00

PAEDS056

Skin grafting (burns )

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS057

Release of contractures

18,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS058

Surgical toilet

12,000.00

24,000.00

PAEDS059

Polypectomy

18,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS060

Testicular biopsy

18,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS061

Cystoscopy + insertion of DJ stent

12,000.00

36,000.00

PAEDS062

Cystoscopy + insertion of DJ stent

30,000.00

60,000.00

PAEDS063

Insertion of CAPD catheter

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS064

Suprapubic cystotomy

18,000.00

36,000.00

PAEDS065

Exploration of foreign body

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS066

Excision of haemorrhoids

24,000.00

48,000.00

F) Minor (GA)

PAEDS067

Lymph node biopsy

18,000.00

36,000.00

PAEDS068

Needle biopsy liver

18,000.00

36,000.00

PAEDS069

Secondary suturing of wounds - LA

12,000.00

24,000.00

PAEDS070

Secondary suturing of wounds - GA

24,000.00

48,000.00

PAEDS071

Skin biopsy

12,000.00

24,000.00

PAEDS072

Excision of warts

8,400.00

24,000.00

PAEDS073

Rigid sigmoidoscopy + rectal snip

8,400.00

30,000.00

PAEDS074

Excision of fingernail / toenail

18,000.00

30,000.00

PAEDS075

Circumcision

12,000.00

30,000.00

PAEDS076

Release of tongue tie

18,000.00

30,000.00

PAEDS077

Incision and drainage of abscess

18,000.00

30,000.00

PAEDS078

Insertion of underwater seal drainage

18,000.00

36,000.00

M013: ANAESTHESIA

ANAESTHESIA

Transfers

Minimum KSh.

Maximum KSh.

ANAES01

Inter hospital (From one unit to another) Per Hour

10,000.00

15,000.00

ANAES02

Inter hospital (Same town) - Per hour

10,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES03

Inter hospital (Different town) - Per hour

10,000.00

50,000.00

ANAES04

Inter hospital (International) - Perhour excluding air fare, accomodation and travelinsurance

10,000.00

25,000.00

Procedures outside the operating room

ANAES05

Tracheal intubation

7,500.00

15,000.00

ANAES06

Tracheal extubation

7,500.00

15,000.00

ANAES07

CVP Catheterization

15,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES08

Lumbar puncture (LP)

10,000.00

15,000.00

ANAES09

Bladder Cathetirization

5,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES10

NG tube insertion

10,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES11

ICU Admission protocol

25,000.00

40,000.00

ANAES12

Insertion of IV line

5000.00 (+visit 3000.00)

ANAES13

Arterial line

10,000.00

10,000.00

ANAES14

Epidurals for labour

ANAES15

Pain procedures (including nerve blocks)

Visits and Reviews

ANAES016

Pre-operative visit

5,000.00

8,000.00

ANAES017

Post operative visit

5,000.00

8,000.00

ANAES018

ICU visit

10,000.00

10,000.00

ANAES019

HDU visit

7,500.00

7,500.00

Monitored anaesthetic care, anaesthesia for other procedures, investigations i.e. CT scans/MRI as per category A and B

The anaesthetic charges for group A and B apply

The anaesthetic charges for group A and B apply

ANAESTHESIA SPECIALTY FEES(invoicing begins at induction to accept recovery, handover at PACU)

Group A: ASA I,II Patient

ANAES020

Minimum charge (1st half hour)

15,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES021

Second half hour +

15,000.00

20,000.00

ANAES022

Second and third hours

20,000.00

25,000.00

ANAES023

Fourth and subsequent hours

25,000.00

27,500.00

Group B: ASA III,IV,V neonates and specialized surgery

ANAES024

Minimum charge + 1st half hour

30,000.00

35,000.00

ANAES025

Second half hour

30,000.00

35,000.00

ANAES026

Second and third hours

35,000.00

40,000.00

ANAES027

Second and third hours

35,000.00

40,000.00

EMERGENCIES: 40% additional charge

NB: In group B it may be mandatory to involve a second anaesthesiologist. In such cases, the second anaesthesiologist will invoice 50% of the charges raised by the primary. This is an additional cost of 50% on the anaesthetic fee.

Diagnostic and Therapeutic Regional Anesthetic & Chronic pain Procedure Fees

ANAES028

1st Consultations

4,000.00

10,000.00

ANAES029

Follow up Consultation

2,500.00

5,000.00

Procedure

Minimum cost

Maximum cost

Nerve & Plexus blocks

ANAES030

Nerve plexus

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES031

Peripheral nerve block - single

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES032

Peripheral nerve block - multiple

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES033

Peripheral Nerve block - continous

17,500.00

30,700.00

ANAES034

Greater occipital nerve block:

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES035

Lesser occipital nerve block:

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES036

Suprascapular nerve:

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES037

Intercostal nerve (single)

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES038

Intercostal nerve (multiple)

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES039

Ilioinguinal and Iliohypogastric nerve:

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES040

Trigeminal nerve (any branch):

56,000.00

98,000.00

ANAES041

Sphenopalatine ganglion:

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES042

Stellate ganglion (cervical sympathetic):

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES043

Superior hypogastric plexus

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES044

Thoracic or lumbar paravertebral sympathetic or ganglion impar block

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES045

Celiac plexus:

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES046

Gasserian ganglion

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES047

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES048

Paravertebral catheter

17,500.00

30,700.00

JOINT / BURSA INJECTION OR ASPIRATION

ANAES049

Major joint/bursa (knee, hip, shoulder, trochanteric bursa, subacromial bursa, pes anserine bursa)

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES050

Intermediate joint/ bursa: (temporomandibular,acromioclavicular, wrist, elbow, ankle, olecranon bursa)

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES051

Minor joint / bursa: (fingers [PIP, DIP], toes)

3,500.00

6,200.00

ANAES052

Sacroiliac joint (SIJ) with fluoroscopy/ ultrasound

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES053

Sacroiliac joint (SIJ) without fluoroscopy/ ultrasound (billed like trigger point injection)

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES054

Fluoroscopic needle guidance (non-spinal):

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES055

Shoulder arthrogram injection:

17,500.00

30,700.00

ANAES056

Hip arthrogram injection:

17,500.00

30,700.00

Tendons, Ligaments, and Muscle Injections

ANAES057

Tendon sheath or Ligament: (iliolumbar ligament, trigger finger, De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, plantar fascia)

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES058

Tendon origin/insertion:

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES059

Trigger point injection (1 or 2 muscles)

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES060

Trigger point injection (3 or more muscles):

10,500.00

18,400.00

Epidural Steroid Injections (ESI)

Interlaminar

ANAES061

Interlaminar – cervical or thoracic

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES062

Interlaminar – lumbar or sacral:

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES063

Fluoroscopic needle guidance (Spinal)

14,000.00

24,500.00

Transforaminal--Remember: Fluoro can NOT be billed separately for these.

ANAES064

Transforaminal – cervical or thoracic (first level)

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES065

Transforaminal – cervical or thoracic (each additional level):

31,500.00

55,200.00

ANAES066

Transforaminal – lumbar or sacral (first level):

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES067

Transforaminal – lumbar or sacral (each additional level):

24,500.00

42,900.00

Facet Joint Procedures

Intraarticular Joint or Medial Branch Block-Remember: Fluoro can NOT be billed separately for these.

ANAES068

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – cervical or thoracic (1st level)

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES069

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – cervical or thoracic (2nd level):

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES070

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – cervical or thoracic (3rd level):

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES071

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – lumbar or sacral (1st level):

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES072

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – lumbar or sacral (2nd level):

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES073

Intraarticular joint or medial branch block (MBB) – lumbar or sacral (3rd level):

21,000.00

36,800.00

Radiofrequency Ablation (RFA)/ ―Destruction‖ of Facet Joint---- Remember: Fluoro can NOT be billed separately for these.

ANAES074

Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) – cervical or thoracic (1st joint):

35,000.00

61,300.00

ANAES075

Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) – cervical or thoracic (eachadditional joint):

35,000.00

61,300.00

ANAES076

Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) – lumbar or sacral (1st joint):

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES077

Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) – lumbar or sacral (each additional joint):

28,000.00

49,000.00

Sacroiliac Joint

ANAES078

Sacroiliac joint (SIJ) without fluoroscopy: (billed as a trigger point injection)

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES079

Sacroiliac joint (SIJ) with fluoroscopy:

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES080

Sacral lateral branch blocks:

24,500.00

42,900.00

Radiofrequency Ablation (RFA) of the Sacroiliac Joint

24,500.00

42,900.00

ANAES081

RF of L5 dorsal primary ramus:

24,500.00

42,900.00

ANAES082

RF of S1 lateral branches:

24,500.00

42,900.00

ANAES083

RF of S2 lateral branches:

24,500.00

42,900.00

ANAES084

RF of S3 lateral branches:

24,500.00

42,900.00

ANAES085

Fluoroscopic needle guidance (Spinal): (for the S1-S3 nerve lateral branches, not the L5)

28,000.00

49,000.00

Vertebroplasty / Kyphoplasty

Same as Orthopedic surgery

Vertebroplasty

ANAES086

Vertebroplasty – Thoracic (1st level):

ANAES087

Vertebroplasty – Thoracic (each additional level):

ANAES088

Vertebroplasty – Lumbar (1st level):

ANAES089

Vertebroplasty – Lumbar (each additional level):Kyphoplasty

ANAES090

Kyphoplasty – Thoracic (1st level):

ANAES091

Kyphoplasty – Thoracic (each additional level): 22525

ANAES092

Kyphoplasty – Lumbar (1st level):

ANAES093

Kyphoplasty – Lumbar (each additional level):

Discogram / Discography-Remember: Fluoroscopy is bundled here and can NOT be billed separately for these

ANAES094

Discogram / Discography – Cervical/Thoracic (each disc):

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES095

Supervision & interpretation of fluoroscopy – Cervical/Thoracic (each disc):

87,500.00

153,200.00

ANAES096

Discogram / Discography – Lumbar (each disc):

94,500.00

165,400.00

ANAES097

Supervision & interpretation of fluoroscopy – Lumbar (each disc):

70,000.00

122,500.00

Botulinum Toxin Injections

ANAES098

Botulinum toxin type A – Botox,

17,500.00

30,700.00

Permanent Chemical / Cryosection and/or Neurolysis:

ANAES099

Chemodenervation of muscles in the neck (spasmodic torticollis):

35,000.00

61,300.00

ANAES100

Chemodenervation of muscles of the trunk and/or extremity(cerebral palsy, dystonia, multiple sclerosis):

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES101

Chemodenervation of muscles innervated by facial, trigeminal, cervical spinal and accessory nerves, bilateral (chronic migraine):

35,000.00

61,300.00

Neurostimulation (Spinal Cord Stimulator)

Trial Procedure

ANAES102

Percutaneous implant of electrode array:

189,000.00

330,800.00

Implantation of Spinal Cord Stimulator Percutaneous Leads and Generato

ANAES103

Percutaneous implant of electrode array

280,000.00

490,000.00

ANAES104

Insertion or replacement of pulse generator

280,000.00

490,000.00

Removal of Leads/Generator (Explant)

ANAES105

Removal of spinal neurostimulator percutaneous array(s)

ANAES106

Removal of pulse generator:

189,000.00

330,800.00

ANAES107

Replacement of Battery

94,500.00

165,400.00

Intrathecal Pump

ANAES108

Trial Procedure

94,500.00

165,400.00

ANAES109

Implantation

280,000.00

490,000.00

ANAES110

Testing

94,500.00

165,400.00

ANAES111

Removal of Intrathecal pump

189,000.00

330,800.00

ANAES112

Replacement of battery

94,500.00

165,400.00

ANAES113

Assessing the pump and making changes to pump delivery

10,500.00

18,400.00

ANAES114

Refill of pump medications

18,900.00

33,100.00

Others Procedures

ANAES115

Carpal tunnel injection

14,000.00

24,500.00

ANAES116

Epidural blood patch

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES118

Fluoroscopic needle guidance (non-spinal):

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES119

CT needle guidance:

21,000.00

36,800.00

ANAES120

Labor Epidural

35,000.00

61,300.00

ANAES121

Tunnelled/Long term Epidural for Chronic Cancer pain

49,000.00

85,800.00

Prolotherapy

ANAES122

single region

7,000.00

12,300.00

ANAES123

multiple

10,500.00

18,400.00

Lidocaine/ Ketamine infusions

35,000.00

61,300.00

ANAES124

IV

28,000.00

49,000.00

ANAES125

S/C

ANAES126 P

CEA & PCA Protocol

17,500.00

30,700.00

Modifiers

Incomplete procedure (reduced service) [Stopping a part of a procedure because of reasons other than the patient’s wellbeing]

Incomplete procedure (physicianelected to terminate a surgical or diagnostic procedure due to the patient’s well-being) – reduced service

Procedures done under some sedation or monitored anaesthesia care will be billed separately

Procedures done under general anaesthesia for postoperative pain management will be billedseparately.

Procedures done under general anaesthesia for anaesthesia purposes will not be billed separately.

M014 : DIAGNOSTIC RADIOLOGY

—

—

A ) X- Ray of Extremities

DGRAD01

Hand

1,200.00

1,800.00

DGRAD02

Both Hands

1,800.00

2,160.00

DGRAD03

Digits

1,200.00

1,800.00

DGRAD04

Wrist

9,600.00

18,000.00

DGRAD05

Scaphoid views

1,800.00

2,160.00

DGRAD06

Forearm

1,800.00

2,160.00

DGRAD07

Both forearms

3,000.00

3,360.00

DGRAD08

Elbow

2,400.00

3,360.00

DGRAD09

Both elbows

3,600.00

4,200.00

DGRAD010

Humerus

1,800.00

3,000.00

DGRAD011

Both humeri

3,000.00

3,360.00

DGRAD012

Shoulder

2,400.00

3,600.00

DGRAD013

Both shoulders

4,800.00

6,000.00

DGRAD014

Clavicle

1,200.00

1,800.00

DGRAD015

Both clavicles

1,800.00

30,000.00

DGRAD016

Sternoclavicular joint

2,400.00

3,600.00

DGRAD017

Foot

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD018

Both feet

1,800.00

3,000.00

DGRAD019

Ankle

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD020

Both ankles

1,800.00

3,000.00

DGRAD021

Leg

1,440.00

3,360.00

DGRAD022

Both legs

2,400.00

3,600.00

DGRAD023

Knee

1,440.00

3,360.00

DGRAD024

Both knees

2,160.00

3,600.00

DGRAD025

Knee skyline view

1,800.00

3,600.00

DGRAD026

Both knees akyline view

3,000.00

4,200.00

DGRAD027

Femur

1,800.00

3,600.00

DGRAD028

Both femora

3,360.00

4,200.00

DGRAD029

Portable X – rays

600.00

1,440.00

DGRAD030

Heels

120.00

3,600.00

DGRAD031

Hip

3,360.00

4,200.00

DGRAD032

Both hips

1,440.00

2,160.00

DGRAD033

Pelvis

1,440.00

2,160.00

B ) Myelogram

12,000.00

24,000.00

DGRAD034

Regional

18,000.00

30,000.00

C ) Angiogram / Venogram

DGRAD035

Unilateral venogram

12,000.00

12,000.00

DGRAD036

Bilateral venogram

14,400.00

18,000.00

DGRAD037

Unilateral femora arteriogram

24,000.00

36,000.00

DGRAD038

Bilateral femora arteriogram

42,000.00

48,000.00

DGRAD039

Regional selective arteriogram

36,000.00

48,000.00

DGRAD040

Bilateral flush aortography

36,000.00

48,000.00

DGRAD041

Unilateral carotid angiogram

36,000.00

48,000.00

DGRAD042

Bilateral carotid angiogram

42,000.00

42,000.00

DGRAD043

Vessel angiogram

48,000.00

60,000.00

D ) Image Intensifier

DGRAD044

Theatre 0.5 hours

7,200.00

9,600.00

DGRAD045

Theatre 1 hour

12,000.00

21,600.00

DGRAD046

Theatre 1.5 hours

12,000.00

21,600.00

DGRAD047

Theatre 2 hours

18,000.00

21,600.00

DGRAD048

Theatre 3 hours

18,000.00

21,600.00

E ) Other X – Rays

DGRAD049

AP or PA chest

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD050

Thoracic inlet

1,440.00

2,400.00

DGRAD051

Chest PA & lateral / oblique

2,160.00

4,200.00

DGRAD052

Skull 2 views

2,400.00

3,360.00

DGRAD053

Skull 3 views

3,000.00

3,600.00

DGRAD054

Skull 4 views

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD055

Pituatary fossa

3,000.00

4,200.00

DGRAD056

Mandible

3,360.00

4,200.00

DGRAD057

Facial bones 4 Views

E ) Other X – Rays ( continued )

DGRAD058

Optic foramina

2,400.00

6,000.00

DGRAD059

T.M. joints

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD060

Mastoids

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD061

Paranasal sinuses

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD062

Maxillary antrum / orbit antrum

2,640.00

6,000.00

DGRAD063

Nasal bone

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD064

Cervical spine AP & lateral

1,800.00

3,600.00

DGRAD065

Cervical spine 5 views, flexion, extention

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD067

Lumbar spine AP & lateral

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD068

Sacro – iliac joints

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD069

Sacrum & coccyx

3,000.00

6,000.00

DGRAD070

Skeletal survey

12,000.00

24,000.00

DGRAD071

Supine abdomen

1,200.00

2,400.00

DGRAD072

Supine & erect abdomen

1,800.00

3,000.00

DGRAD073

Pelvimetry

1,800.00

3,000.00

DGRAD074

Barium swallow

3,000.00

4,200.00

DGRAD075

Barium meal

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRAD076

Barium meal & follow through

7,200.00

9,600.00

DGRAD077

Gastrograffin examination

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRAD078

Barium enema

7,200.00

9,600.00

DGRAD079

Double contrast barium enema

12,000.00

24,000.00

DGRAD080

IVU

8,400.00

14,400.00

DGRAD081

High dose IVU

12,000.00

18,000.00

DGRAD082

Retrograde pyelogram

9,600.00

14,400.00

DGRAD083 M

CU

6,000.00

12,000.00

DGRAD084

Ascending cystourethrogram

6,000.00

12,000.00

DGRAD085

T – Tube cholangiogram

7,200.00

12,000.00

DGRAD086

Cholangiogram in theatre

12,000.00

24,000.00

F ) Ultrasound

DGRARD087

Liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD088

Pelvic, gynae, bladder, prostate

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD089

Ultrasound guided biopsies

12,000.00

24,000.00

DGRARD090

Bilateral doppler

12,000.00

24,000.00

DGRARD091

Unilateral doppler

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD092

Transrectal

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD093

Thyroid

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD094

Testes

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD095

Breast

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD096

Lumbar spine

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD097

Chest

6,000.00

9,600.00

DGRARD098

Transvaginal

6,000.00

9,600.00

G ) CT Scan

DGRARD99

Emergency

18,000.00

30,000.00

DGRARD100

Regional

18,000.00

30,000.00

DGRARD101

Abdominal

18,000.00

30,000.00

DGRARD102

Head / Skull

14,400.00

26,400.00

DGRARD103

Orbits / Sinuses

12,000.00

24,000.00

H ) Others

DGRARD104

Cardiac Sc ( pacemaker )

14,400.00

21,600.00

DGRARD105

Cardiac Sc ( perm port)

18,000.00

24,000.00

DGRARD106

HSG

6,000.00

120,000.00

DGRARD107

Sialogram

6,000.00

12,000.00

DGRARD108

Sinogram

6,000.00

12,000.00

DGRARD109

Athrogram

6,000.00

DGRARD110

12,000.00

24,000.00

M015: DERMATOLOGY

DERM01

Laser

15,000.00

60,000.00

DERM02

Electrocaurtery

30,000.00

60,000.00

DERM03

Basal Cell Excision

24,000.00

60,000.00

DERM04

Squamous Cell Excision

36,000.00

72,000.00

DERM05

Cryotherapy

25,000.00

50,000.00

DERM06

Cautery

36,000.00

72,000.00

DERM07

KOH Preparation

2,500.00

5,000.00

DERM08

Skin Biopsy (small to large)

12,000.00

50,000.00

DERM09

Chemical Cautery (phenol)

6,000.00

15,000.00

DERM10

Iontophoresis (per session minimum 5 sessions)

4,800.00

7,200.00

DERM11

Botox injection per session

60,000.00

120,000.00

DERM12

Intra lesional injection

30,000.00

50,000.00

DERM13

Phototherapy per session minumum 7 sessions

20,000.00

60,000.00

DERM14

Ingrown toe nail

24,000.00

48,000.00

DERM15

A typical mole excision

36,000.00

72,000.00

DERM16

Culletage

12,000.00

36,000.00

DERM17

Microdemabration / microneddling

24,000.00

48,000.00

DERM18

Chemical peels

6,000.00

12,000.00

DERM19

Dermal feelers

60,000.00

120,000.00

DERM20

Electrolysis/epilation /Electrofulguration

48,000.00

72,000.00

DERM21

Skin punch biopsy

15,000.00

60,000.00

DERM22

Incision and drainage of abscess

12,000.00

24,000.00

DERM23

excision of skin lesions /wart, ganglion, lipoma

20,000.00

50,000.00

M016 : GASTROENTEROLOGY AND ENDOSCOPYOGD

GASTROEND01

Diagnostic

18,000.00

48,000.00

GASTROEND02

Sclerotherapy

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND03

Diathermy ( haemostatic procedure )

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND04

Pyloric balloon dilatation

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND05

PEG tube insertion

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND06

Stricture dilatation (savary gilliard)

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND07

Upper GI polypectomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND08

Stent insertion

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND09

Stricture dilatation (TTC)

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND10

Pneumatic dilatation

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND11

Band ligation

36,000.00

72,000.00

Colonoscopy

GASTROEND12

Diagnostic

18,000.00

36,000.00

GASTROEND13

Stricture dilatation

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND14

Lower GI polypectomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

ERCP

GASTROEND15

Diagnostic

36,000.00

60,000.00

GASTROEND16

Sphicterotomy

36,000.00

72,000.00

GASTROEND17

Stent insertion

36,000.00

84,000.00

GASTROEND18

Sphincterotomy + stone removal

36,000.00

60,000.00

Others

GASTROEND19

Bronchoscopy

18,000.00

36,000.00

GASTROEND20

Laryngoscopy

12,000.00

36,000.00

GASTROEND21

Sigmoidoscopy

12,000.00

36,000.00

GASTROEND22

Rectal snip

6,000.00

12,000.00

GASTROEND23

Liver biopsy

18,000.00

36,000.00

GASTROEND24

Peritoneal biopsy

6,000.00

36,000.00

M017 : OTHER PROCEDURES

—

—

A) Neurology

EEG

6,000.00

18,000.00

Nerve conduction atudies

12,000.00

36,000.00

Evoked potential

12,000.00

36,000.00

Diagnostic lumbar puncture

6,000.00

18,000.00

Therapeutic lumbar puncture

12,000.00

36,000.00

B) Respiratory

#VALUE!

#VALUE!

Peak flowmetry

6,000.00

18,000.00

Spirometry

6,000.00

18,000.00

Chest aspiration

6,000.00

18,000.00

Chest aspiration

6,000.00

18,000.00

Chest aspiration with biopsy

6,000.00

18,000.00

C) Dermatology

Basal cell excision

18,000.00

36,000.00

Squamous cell excision

18,000.00

36,000.00

Cryotherapy

6,000.00

18,000.00

Cautery

18,000.00

36,000.00

KOH preparation

6,000.00

12,000.00

Skin biospy

6,000.00

12,000.00

D) Nephrology

Vascular access

—

—

A – V shunt / fistulae

24,000.00

60,000.00

Renal biopsy

18,000.00

36,000.00

Insertion of peritoneal catheter

24,000.00

60,000.00

Haemodialysis

6,000.00

18,000.00

Pertineal dialysis

6,000.00

18,000.00

Renal transplant

36,000.00

72,000.00

CVVHD

6,000.00

18,000.00

E) Psychiatry

Electroconvulsive Therapy (persession)

12,000.00

24,000.00

Psychotherapy (per hour)

8,000.00

15,000.00

M017 : OTHER PROCEDURES —

F ) Paediatrics

Exchange transfusion

24,000.00

48,000.00

Cannulae fixation - anaes

1,200.00

6,000.00

Venepuncture

1,200.00

1,800.00

Chemotherapy - IV

6,000.00

12,000.00

Chemotherapy intrathecal

9,600.00

18,000.00

Intraosseous cannulation

12,000.00

24,000.00

Central line insertion

12,000.00

18,000.00

Venous cutdown

12,000.00

24,000.00

Femoral vein cannulation

12,000.00

24,000.00

Umbilical catheterization

6,000.00

12,000.00

Lumbar puncture

6,000.00

12,000.00

Resuscitation

12,000.00

24,000.00

Pleural tap

12,000.00

24,000.00

Pleural biopsy

18,000.00

30,000.00

Intubation

6,000.00

12,000.00

Surprapubic bladder tap

6,000.00

9,600.00

Urinary catheter insertion

3,600.00

7,200.00

N.G. tube insertion

3,600.00

7,200.00

Flatus tube insertion

3,600.00

7,200.00

Proctoscopy

1,200.00

6,000.00

Enema

6,000.00

12,000.00

Manual removal of impacted stool

9,000.00

18,000.00

Removal of Foreign Bodies:

—

—

Eye

6,000.00

12,000.00

Nose

6,000.00

12,000.00

Ear

6,000.00

12,000.00

Vagina

6,000.00

12,000.00

Rectum

6,000.00

12,000.00

Bone marrow aspirate - path

6,000.00

12,000.00

Splenic aspirate - gastro

6,000.00

12,000.00

Pericardial tap / aspirate

12,000.00

24,000.00

Insertion of PD catheter

18,000.00

36,000.00

Permcath

18,000.00

36,000.00

M018: ANATOMICAL PATHOLOGY: HISTOLOGY/CYTOLOGY/PM

PATH01

Cytology Pap smears/Gynae Cytology Vaginal or cervical smears, each

2,040.00

3,360.00

PATH02

Cytology Sputum, all body fluids and tumour aspirates: First unit

2,040.00

2,880.00

PATH03

Cytology: Performance of fineneedle aspiration (FNA)

2,760.00

5,040.00

PATH04

Histology Additonal Blocks (per block)

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH05

Histology and frozen section in laboratory

3,600.00

5,760.00

PATH06

Histology and frozen section in theatre

7,200.00

21,600.00

PATH07

Histology consultation per slide

2,160.00

4,320.00

PATH08

Histology Medium sized biopsies (3 to 5 blocks)

5,760.00

8,640.00

PATH09

Histology Small Sized Biopsies (1-2 blocks)

3,600.00

5,760.00

PATH10

Histology Large Sized Biopsies (more than 5 slides)

8,000.00

15,000.00

PATH11

Immunofluorescence studies

3,360.00

5,520.00

PATH12

Immunoperoxidase studies

5,040.00

8,280.00

PATH13

Intraop Examination of fine needle aspiration in theatre

12,960.00

19,440.00

PATH14

Postmortem: Foetal autopsy excluding histology & ancillary tests

30,000.00

60,000.00

PATH15

Postmortem: Forensic autopsy excluding histology & ancillary tests/procedures/court appearance

36,000.00

66,000.00

PATH16

Postmoterm: Clinical autopsy excluding histology & ancillary tests/procedures

30,000.00

60,000.00

PATH17

Second and subsequent frozen sections, each

6,240.00

4,200.00

PATH18

Serial step sections

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH19

Special stains

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH20

Transmission electron microscopy

10,680.00

21,600.00

PATH21

Forensic toxicology

150,000.00

250,000.00

PATH22

Exhumantion

100,000.00

150,000.00

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY, SEROLOGY, ENDOCRINOLOGY

PATH23

Abnormal pigments: Qualitative

600.00

960.00

PATH24

Abnormal pigments: Quantitative

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH25

Acid phosphate

720.00

PATH26

Amino acids Quantitative (Post derivatisation HPLC)

9,840.00

14,760.00

PATH27

Albumin

720.00

1,080.00

PATH28

Alcohol

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH29

Alkaline phosphatase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH30

Alkaline phosphatase-isoenzymes

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH31

Ammonia: Enzymatic

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH32

Ammonia: Monitor

600.00

960.00

PATH33

Alpha-1-antitrypsin: Total

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH34

Amylase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH35

Arsenic in blood, hair or nails

4,680.00

6,840.00

PATH36

Bilirubin - Reflectance

720.00

1,080.00

PATH37

Bilirubin: Total

720.00

1,080.00

PATH38

Bilirubin: Conjugated

600.00

720.00

PATH39

Breath Hydrogen Test

2,760.00

4,080.00

PATH40

CSF Nicotinic Acid

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH41

CSF Glutamine

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH42

Cadmium: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH43

Calcium: Ionized

960.00

1,320.00

PATH44

Calcium: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH45

Calcium: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH46

Carotene

360.00

480.00

PATH47

Carnitine (Total or free) in biological fluid: Each

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH48

Carnitine (Total or free) in muscle: Each

3,120.00

4,560.00

PATH49

Acyl Carnitine

3,120.00

4,560.00

PATH50

Chloride

480.00

600.00

PATH51

Chol/HDL/LDL/Trig

1,920.00

3,840.00

PATH52

LDL cholesterol (chemical determination)

960.00

1,320.00

PATH53

Cholesterol total

720.00

1,080.00

PATH54

HDL cholesterol

720.00

1,080.00

PATH55

Cholinesterase: Serum or erythrocyte: Each

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH56

Cholinesterase phenotype (Dibucaine or fluoride each)

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH57

Total CO2

720.00

1,080.00

PATH58

Creatinine

600.00

720.00

PATH59

CSF-Immunoglobulin G

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH60

C1-Esterase Inhibitor

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH61

CSF-Albumin

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH62

CSF-IgG Index

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH63

Glutamic acid

3,840.00

5,520.00

PATH64

Homocysteine (random)

2,040.00

2,880.00

PATH65

Homocysteine (after Methionine load)

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH66

D-Xylose absorption test: Two hours

1,800.00

3,480.00

PATH67

Fibrinogen: Quantitative

600.00

720.00

PATH68

Glucose tolerance test (2 specimens)

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH69

Glucose strip-test with photometric reading

360.00

480.00

PATH70

Galactose

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH71

Glucose tolerance test (3 specimens)

1,800.00

3,480.00

PATH72

Glucose tolerance test (4 specimens)

2,160.00

3,360.00

PATH73

Glucose: Quantitative

600.00

720.00

PATH74

Glucose tolerance test (5 specimens)

2,760.00

4,080.00

PATH75

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH76

Fructosamine

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH77

HbA1C

2,160.00

3,600.00

PATH78

Immunofixation: Total protein, IgG, IgA, IgM, Kappa, Lambda

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH79

Lithium: Flame ionisation

720.00

1,080.00

PATH80

Lithium: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH81

Iron

960.00

1,320.00

PATH82

Iron-binding capacity

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH83

Blood gases: Astrup/pO2 and ancillary tests - can only be charged to a maximum of 6 times per patient per day

2,520.00

3,600.00

PATH84

Oximetry analysis: MetHb, COHb, O2Hb, RHb, SulfHb

960.00

1,320.00

PATH85

Ketones in plasma: Qualitative

360.00

480.00

PATH86

Drug level-biological fluid: Quantitative per drug (others)

2,880.00

5,760.00

PATH87

Anti-Mullerian Hormone

7,080.00

9,840.00

PATH88

Cyclosporin assay

2,880.00

4,440.00

PATH89

Tacrolimus assay

2,880.00

4,440.00

PATH90

Lysosomal enzyme assay

4,680.00

6,960.00

PATH91

Thymidine kinase

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH92

Lipase

720.00

1,440.00

PATH93

Lactate

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH94

Lipoprotein electrophoresis

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH95

Orosmucoid

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH96

Osmolality: Serum or urine

960.00

1,320.00

PATH97

Magnesium: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH98

Magnesium: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH99

Mercury: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH100

Copper: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH101

Protein electrophoresis

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH102

IgG sub-class 1, 2, 3 or 4: Per sub-class

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH103

Serological antibody (tests per antibody)

2,640.00

4,560.00

PATH104

Phosphate

600.00

720.00

PATH105

Potassium

600.00

720.00

PATH106

Sodium

600.00

720.00

PATH107

Protein: Total

480.00

720.00

PATH108

pH, pCO2 or pO2: Each

960.00

1,320.00

PATH109

Pyruvic acid

600.00

960.00

PATH110

Salicylates

600.00

960.00

PATH111

Caeruloplasmin

600.00

960.00

PATH112

Phenylalanine: Quantitative

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH113

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH114

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH115

Creatine kinase (CK)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH116

Lactate dehidrogenase (LD)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH117

Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH118

Aldolase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH119

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH120

Lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH121

CK-MB: Immunoinhibition/precipitation

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH122

Adenosine deaminase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH123

Serum/plasma enzymes

720.00

1,080.00

PATH124

Transferring

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH125

Lead: Atomic absorption

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH126

Triglyceride

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH127

Tay - Sachs Study

4,680.00

6,960.00

PATH128

Red cell magnesium

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH129

Urea

600.00

720.00

PATH130

CK-MB: Mass determination:Quantitative (Automated)

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH131

CK-MB: Mass determination:Quantitative (Not automated)

2,400.00

4,200.00

PATH132

Myoglobin quantitative:Monoclonal immunological

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH133

Uric acid

600.00

720.00

PATH134

Vitamin D3

2,880.00

5,760.00

PATH135

Vitamin A-saturation test

2,880.00

5,760.00

PATH136

Vitamin E (tocopherol)

2,880.00

5,760.00

PATH137

Vitamin A

2,880.00

5,760.00

PATH138

Troponin isoforms: Each

3,000.00

4,800.00

PATH139

Apoprotein AI: Turbidometric method

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH140

Apoprotein AII: Turbidometric method

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH141

Apoprotein B: Turbidometric method

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH142

Lipoprotein (a)(Lp(a)) assay

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH143

Sodium + potassium + chloride + CO2 + urea

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH144

ELISA technique (other test) per antibody

2,520.00

4,320.00

PATH145

Sirolimus Assay

9,840.00

14,640.00

PATH146

Quantitative protein estimation: Mancini method

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH147

Quantitative protein estimation: Nephelometer or Turbidometeric method

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH148

Quantitative protein estimation: Labelled antibody

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH149

C-reactive protein (Ultra sensitive)

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH150

Lactose

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH151

Vitamin B6

2,040.00

2,880.00

PATH152

Zinc: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH153

Urine dipstick, per stick (irrespective of the number oftests on stick)

360.00

360.00

PATH154

Abnormal pigments

600.00

960.00

PATH155

Alkapton test: Homogentisic acid

600.00

960.00

PATH156

Amino acids: Quantitative (Post derivatisation HPLC)

9,840.00

14,760.00

PATH157

Amino laevulinic acid

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH158

Amylase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH159

Arsenic

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH160

Ascorbic acid

360.00

480.00

PATH161

Bence-Jones protein

480.00

600.00

PATH162

Calcium: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH163

Calcium: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH164

Lead: Atomic absorption

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH165

Urine collagen telopeptides

4,680.00

6,960.00

PATH166

Bile pigments: Qualitative

360.00

480.00

PATH167

Protein: Quantitative

360.00

480.00

PATH168

Mucopolysaccharides: Qualitative

600.00

720.00

PATH169

Oxalate

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH170

Glucose: Quantitative

360.00

480.00

PATH171

Steroids: Chromatography (each)

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH172

Creatinine

600.00

720.00

PATH173

Creatinine clearance

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH174

Electrophoresis: Qualitative

600.00

960.00

PATH175

Fetal Lung Maturity

4,680.00

6,960.00

PATH176

Urine/Fluid - Specific Gravity

240.00

360.00

PATH177

Metabolites HPLC (High Pressure Liquid Chromatography)

4,800.00

7,080.00

PATH178

Metabolites (Gaschromatography/Mass spectrophotometry)

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH179

Pharmacological/Drugs of abuse:Metabolites HPLC (High Pressure Liquid Chromatography)

4,800.00

7,080.00

PATH180

Pharmacological/Drugs of abuse:Metabolites (Gaschromatography/Mass spectrophotometry)

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH181

5-Hydroxy-indole-acetic acid: Screen test

480.00

600.00

PATH182

5HIAA (Hplc)

9,840.00

14,760.00

PATH183

Ketones: Excluding dip-stick method

360.00

480.00

PATH184

Reducing substances

360.00

480.00

PATH185

Metanephrines: Column chromatography

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH186

Metanephrine (Hplc)

9,840.00

14,760.00

PATH187

Aromatic amines (gas chromatography/mass spectrophotometry)

3,480.00

5,040.00

PATH188

Nitrosonaphtol test for tyrosine

360.00

480.00

PATH189

Orotic Acid - Urine

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH190

Very long Chain Fatty Acids

16,200.00

24,240.00

PATH191

Micro Albumin: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH192

Micro Albumin: Qualitative

600.00

960.00

PATH193

pH: Excluding dip-stick method

240.00

360.00

PATH194

Thin layer chromatography: One way

960.00

1,320.00

PATH195

Thin layer chromatography: Two way

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH196

Organic acids: Quantitative: GCMS

13,680.00

20,520.00

PATH197

Phenylpyruvic acid: Ferric chloride

360.00

480.00

PATH198

Chromium Total Urine

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH199

Phosphate excretion index

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH200

Porphobilinogen qualitative screen: Urine

720.00

1,080.00

PATH201

Porphobilinogen/ALA: Quantitative each

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH202

Magnesium: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH203

Magnesium: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH204

Identification of carbohydrate

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH205

Identification of drug: Qualitative

600.00

960.00

PATH206

Identification of drug: Quantitative

1,440.00

4,080.00

PATH207

Urea clearance

720.00

1,080.00

PATH208

Copper: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH209

Copper: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH210

Chloride

480.00

600.00

PATH211

Urobilinogen: Quantitative

960.00

1,320.00

PATH212

Phosphates

600.00

720.00

PATH213

Potassium

600.00

720.00

PATH214

Sodium

600.00

720.00

PATH215

Urea

600.00

720.00

PATH216

Uric acid

600.00

720.00

PATH217

Total protein and protein electrophoresis

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH218

VMA: Quantitative

7,800.00

13,440.00

PATH219

Catecholamines (HPLC)

7,800.00

13,440.00

PATH220

Immunofixation: Total protein, IgG, IgA, IgM, Kappa, Lambda

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH221

Immunoglobulin D

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH222

Cystine: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH223

Dinitrophenol hydrazine test: Ketoacids

360.00

480.00

PATH224

Chloride

480.00

600.00

PATH225

Fat: Qualitative

480.00

720.00

PATH226

Fat: Quantitative

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH227

Ph

240.00

360.00

PATH228

Occult blood: Chemical test

360.00

480.00

PATH229

Occult blood: Monoclonal antibodies

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH230

Potassium

600.00

720.00

PATH231

Sodium

600.00

720.00

PATH232

Secretory IgA

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH233

Elastase quantitative ELISA

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH234

Stercobilinogen: Quantitative

960.00

1,320.00

PATH235

Porphyrin screen qualitative: Urine, stool, red blood cells: Each

720.00

1,080.00

PATH236

Porphyrin qualitative analysis by TLC: Urine, stool, red blood cells: Each

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH237

Porphyrin: Total quantisation: Urine, stool, red blood cells: Each

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH238

Porphyrin quantitative analysis by TLC/HPLC: Urine, stool, red blood cells: Each

3,840.00

5,640.00

PATH239

Drug level in biological fluid: Monoclonal immunological

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH240

Amylase in exudate

720.00

1,080.00

PATH241

Fluoride in biological fluids and water

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH242

Trace metals in biological fluid: Atomic absorption

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH243

Calcium in fluid: Spectrophotometric

600.00

720.00

PATH244

Calcium in fluid: Atomic absorption

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH245

Gallstone analysis: (Bilirubin, Ca, P, Oxalate, Cholesterol)

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH246

Urea breath test

7,440.00

11,040.00

PATH247

Lecithin in amniotic fluid: L/S ratio

3,480.00

5,040.00

PATH248

Lamellar body count in amniotic fluid

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH249

Foam test: Amniotic fluid

480.00

720.00

PATH250

Renal calculus: Chemistry

720.00

1,080.00

PATH251

Renal calculus: Crystallography

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH252

Sweat: Sodium

600.00

720.00

PATH253

Sweat: Potassium

600.00

720.00

PATH254

Sweat: Chloride

480.00

600.00

PATH255

Sweat collection by iontophoresis (excluding collection material)

600.00

960.00

PATH256

Tryptophane loading test

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH257

Cell count

480.00

720.00

PATH258

Cell count, protein, glucose and chloride

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH259

Chloride

480.00

600.00

PATH260

Sodium

600.00

720.00

PATH261

Protein: Qualitative

240.00

360.00

PATH262

Protein: Quantitative

480.00

720.00

PATH263

Glucose

600.00

720.00

PATH264

Urea

600.00

720.00

PATH265

Protein electrophoresis

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH266

HCG: Latex agglutination: Qualitative (side room)

600.00

960.00

PATH267

HCG: Latex agglutination: Semiquantitative (side room)

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH268

HCG: Monoclonal immunological: Qualitative

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH269

HCG: Monoclonal immunological: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH270

Bone Specific Alk Phosphatase

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH271

Anti IgE receptor antibody test (10 samples and dilution)

20,160.00

30,240.00

PATH272

Eosinophil cationic protein

3,480.00

5,280.00

PATH273

Micro-albuminuria: Radioisotope method

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH274

Acetyl choline receptor antibody

19,800.00

29,520.00

PATH275

CA-199 tumour marker

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH276

Nuclear Matrix Protein 22

4,560.00

6,720.00

PATH277

CA-125 tumour marker

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH278

C6 complement functional essay

5,640.00

8,520.00

PATH279

Beta-2-microglobulin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH280

Chromograqnin A

6,000.00

8,880.00

PATH281

CA-549

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH282

Tumour markers: Monoclonal immunological (each)

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH283

CA-195 tumour marker

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH284

Carcino-embryonic antigen

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH285

TSH Receptor Ab

2,400.00

4,680.00

PATH286

Cast Per Allergen

3,480.00

5,280.00

PATH287

CA-724

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH288

Neuron specific enolase

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH289

Osteocalcin

4,080.00

6,000.00

PATH290

Vitamin B12-absorption: Shilling test

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH291

Serotonin

2,520.00

3,600.00

PATH292

T4 Free thyroxine (FT4)

2,040.00

3,360.00

PATH293

TSH/T4 Thyrotropin (TSH) + Free Thyroxine (FT4)

3,240.00

6,360.00

PATH294

Insulin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH295

C-Peptide

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH296

Calcitonin

2,520.00

3,600.00

PATH297

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide

5,040.00

8,880.00

PATH298

Releasing hormone response

6,360.00

9,360.00

PATH299

Vitamin B12

1,920.00

3,600.00

PATH300

Vitamin D3: Calcitroil (RIA)

9,360.00

9,360.00

PATH301

Drug concentration: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH302

Free hormone assay

2,400.00

3,360.00

PATH303

Growth hormone

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH304

Hormone concentration: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH305

Carbohydrate deficient transferrin

3,840.00

5,520.00

PATH306

Cortisol

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH307

DHEA sulphate

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH308

Testosterone

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH309

Free testosterone

2,400.00

3,360.00

PATH310

Oestradiol

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH311

Oestriol

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH312

Multiple antigen specific IgE screening test for Atopy

4,800.00

7,080.00

PATH313

TSH - Thyrotropin (TSH)

2,520.00

3,840.00

PATH314

Combined antigen specific IgE

3,240.00

4,680.00

PATH315

TFT - Thyroid function test (T3+T4+TSH)

4,320.00

7,200.00

PATH316

T3 Free tri-iodothyronine (FT3)

2,040.00

3,360.00

PATH317

Renin activity

2,520.00

3,600.00

PATH318

Parathormone

2,160.00

3,360.00

PATH319

Aldosterone

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH320

Follitropin (FSH)

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH321

Lutropin (LH)

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH322

Soluble transferrin receptor

1,440.00

2,160.00

PATH323

Prostate specific antigen

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH324

17 Hydroxy progesterone

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH325

Progesterone

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH326

Alpha-feto protein

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH327

ACTH

3,240.00

5,400.00

PATH328

Free PSA

2,760.00

3,840.00

PATH329

Sex hormone binding globulin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH330

Gastrin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH331

Ferritin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH332

Anti-DNA antibodies

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH333

Antiplatelet antibodies

2,040.00

2,880.00

PATH334

Hepatitis: Per antigen or antibody

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH335

Transcobalamine

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH336

Folic acid

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH337

Prostatic acid phosphatase

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH338

Erythrocyte folate

2,400.00

3,360.00

PATH339

Prolactin

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH340

Procalcitonin: Semi-quantitative

4,080.00

6,120.00

PATH341

Procalcitonin: Quantitative

5,760.00

8,640.00

PATH342

HCG: Quantitative as used for Down's screen

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH343

First trimester Downs screen

6,840.00

10,080.00

PATH344

Second Trimester Down's screen

4,200.00

6,360.00

PATH345

Anti-CCP

2,160.00

3,360.00

PATH346

Erythropoietin

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH347

HTLV I/II

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH348

Anti-Gm1 Antibody Assay

9,360.00

14,160.00

PATH349

HIV Ab - Rapid Test

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH350

Thyroglubulin

2,640.00

2,400.00

PATH351

SCC marker

2,640.00

2,400.00

CYTOGENETIC STUDIES

—

—

PATH352

First trimester Downs screen

6,840.00

10,080.00

PATH353

Second Trimester Down's screen

4,200.00

6,360.00

PATH354

Cell culture: Lymphocytes, cord blood

2,040.00

2,880.00

PATH355

Cell culture: Amniotic fluid, fibroblasts, leukaemia bloods, bone marrow, other specialised cultures

5,760.00

8,640.00

PATH356

Cell culture: Chorionic villi

7,680.00

11,520.00

PATH357

Cytogenetic analysis:Lymphocytes: Idiograms, karyotyping, one staining technique

17,280.00

25,800.00

PATH358

Cytogenetic analysis: Amniotic fluid, fibroblasts, chorionic villi, products of conception, bone marrow, leukamia bloods: Idiograms, karyotyping, one straining technique

34,440.00

51,720.00

HAEMATOLOGY AND COAGULATION

PATH359

Alkali resistant haemoglobin

600.00

960.00

PATH360

Antiglobulin test (Coombs' or trypsinzied red cells)

600.00

720.00

PATH361

Antibody titration

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH362

Antibody identification

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH363

Bleeding time (does not include the cost of the simplate device)

960.00

1,320.00

PATH364

Blood volume, dye method

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH365

Buffy layer examination

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH366

Bone marrow cytological examination only

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH367

Bone marrow Aspiration Procedure (excl consumables and histology)

3,000.00

5,280.00

PATH368

Bone marrow trephine biopsy (excl consumables and histology)

4,200.00

6,240.00

PATH369

Bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy procedure (excl consumables and histology)

4,680.00

6,960.00

PATH370

Capillary fragility: Hess

360.00

480.00

PATH371

Circulating anticoagulants

720.00

1,200.00

PATH372

Coagulation factor inhibitor assay

7,200.00

10,800.00

PATH373

Activated protein C resistance

3,360.00

4,920.00

PATH374

Coagulation time

480.00

720.00

PATH375

Anti-factor Xa Activity

6,840.00

10,080.00

PATH376

Cold agglutinins

600.00

720.00

PATH377

Protein S: Functional

3,960.00

5,760.00

PATH378

Compatibility for blood transfusion

600.00

720.00

PATH379

Cryoglobulin

600.00

720.00

PATH380

Protein C (chromogenic)

3,960.00

5,760.00

PATH381

Anti-thrombin III (chromogenic)

2,760.00

4,200.00

PATH382

Plasminogen (chromogenic)

7,800.00

11,520.00

PATH383

Lupus Russel Viper method

2,160.00

3,240.00

PATH384

Lupus Kaolin Exner method

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH385

Erythrocyte count

360.00

480.00

PATH386

Factors V and VII: Qualitative

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH387

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

480.00

600.00

PATH388

Fibrin stabilizing factor (urea test)

960.00

960.00

PATH389

Fibrin monomers

480.00

600.00

PATH390

Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI-I)

8,280.00

12,480.00

PATH391

Tissue plasminogen Activator (tPA)

8,520.00

12,720.00

PATH392

Osmotic fragility (before and after incubation)

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH393

ABO Reverse Group

600.00

720.00

PATH394

Full blood count

1,080.00

2,040.00

PATH395

Full cross match

1,080.00

2,160.00

PATH396

Coagulation factors: Quantitative

4,080.00

6,120.00

PATH397

Factor VIII related antigen

7,680.00

11,400.00

PATH398

Coagulation factor correction study

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH399

Factor XIII related antigen

7,680.00

11,520.00

PATH400

Haemoglobin estimation

360.00

480.00

PATH401

Contact activated product assay

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH402

Grouping: A B and O antigens

600.00

720.00

PATH403

Grouping: Rh antigen

600.00

720.00

PATH404

PIVKA

5,520.00

8,280.00

PATH405

Euglobulin Lysis time

3,360.00

4,920.00

PATH406

Haemoglobin A2 (column chromatography)

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH407

Haemoglobin electrophoresis

3,480.00

5,040.00

PATH408

Haemoglobin electrophoresis HPLC

9,720.00

13,080.00

PATH409

Haemoglobin-S (solubility test)

600.00

720.00

PATH410

Haptoglobin: Quantitative

3,480.00

4,320.00

PATH411

Ham's acidified serum test

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH412

Heinz bodies 3

60.00

480.00

PATH413

Haemosiderin in urinary sediment

360.00

480.00

PATH414

Leucocyte differential count

960.00

1,200.00

PATH415

Leucocytes: Total count

360.00

480.00

PATH416

QBC malaria concentration and fluorescent staining

720.00

1,440.00

PATH417

LE-cells

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH418

Neutrophil alkaline phosphatase

3,600.00

5,400.00

PATH419

Packed cell volume: Haematocrit

360.00

480.00

PATH420

Plasmodium falciparum: Monoclonal immunological identification

1,200.00

1,800.00

PATH421

Plasma haemoglobin

960.00

1,320.00

PATH422

Platelet sensitivities

2,520.00

3,600.00

PATH423

Platelet aggregation per aggregant

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH424

Platelet count

360.00

480.00

PATH425

Platelet adhesiveness

600.00

960.00

PATH426

Prothrombin consumption

720.00

1,200.00

PATH427

Prothrombin determination (two stages

720.00

1,200.00

PATH428

Prothrombin index (INR)

960.00

1,200.00

PATH429

Therapeutic drug level: Dosage

600.00

960.00

PATH430

Reticulocyte count

480.00

600.00

PATH431

Schumm's test

600.00

720.00

PATH432

Sickling test

360.00

480.00

PATH433

Sucrose lysis test for PNH

600.00

720.00

PATH434

T and B-cells EAC markers (limited to ONE marker only for CD4/8 counts)

2,760.00

4,080.00

PATH435

Thrombo - Elastogram

3,360.00

4,920.00

PATH436

Fibrinogen titre

600.00

720.00

PATH437

Glucose 6-phosphatedehydrogenase: Qualitative

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH438

Glucose 6-phosphatedehydrogenase: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH439

Red cell pyruvate kinase: Quantitative

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH440

Red cell Rhesus phenotype

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH441

Haemoglobin F in blood smear

720.00

1,200.00

PATH442

Partial thromboplastin time

720.00

1,200.00

PATH443

Thrombin time (screen)

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH444

Thrombin time (serial)

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH445

Haemoglobin H

360.00

480.00

PATH446

Fibrin degeneration products (diffusion plate)

1,320.00

2,040.00

PATH447

Fibrin degeneration products (latex slide)

600.00

960.00

PATH448

XDP (Dimer test or equivalent latex slide test)

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH449

Haemagglutination inhibition

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH450

D-Dimer (quantitative)

2,760.00

5,280.00

PATH451

Ristocetin Cofactor

4,560.00

6,840.00

PATH452

Heparin removal

3,600.00

5,520.00

PATH453

Autogenous vaccine

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH454

Entomological examination

2,640.00

3,960.00

PATH455

Parasites in blood smear

720.00

1,200.00

PATH456

CD4/CD8

1,440.00

4,320.00

PATH457

Flow Cytometry per marker

4,800.00

6,240.00

IMMUNOLOGY & TISSUE TYPING

PATH458

HLA test for specific allele DNA-PCR

4,680.00

6,840.00

PATH459

HLA typing low resolution Class I DNA-PCR per locus

12,600.00

18,720.00

PATH460

HLA typing low resolution Class II DNA-PCR per locus

9,240.00

13,920.00

PATH461

HLA typing high resolution Class I or II DNA-PCR per locus

8,280.00

12,480.00

PATH462

Anti IgE receptor antibody test (10 samples and dilution)

20,160.00

30,240.00

PATH463

Mast cell tryptase

12,120.00

18,240.00

PATH464

Acetyl choline receptor antibody

19,800.00

29,520.00

PATH465

IgE: Total

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH466

Antigen specific IgE

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH467

Panel typing: Antibody detection: Class I

4,680.00

6,840.00

PATH468

Panel typing: Antibody detection: Class II

5,520.00

8,280.00

PATH469

HLA test for specific locus/antigen - serology

3,480.00

5,040.00

PATH470

HLA typing: Class I - serology

6,480.00

9,840.00

PATH471

HLA typing: Class II - serology

6,480.00

9,840.00

PATH472

HLA typing: Class I & II - serology

11,280.00

16,920.00

PATH473

Cross matching T-cells (per tray)

2,400.00

3,480.00

PATH474

Cross matching B-cells

4,800.00

7,200.00

PATH475

Cross matching T- & B-cells

6,120.00

9,120.00

MICROBIOLOGY

PATH476

Miscellaneous (body fluids, urine, exudate, fungi, puss, scrapings, etc.)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH477

Fungus identification

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH478

Faeces (including parasites)

720.00

1,080.00

PATH479

Inclusion bodies

600.00

960.00

PATH480

Crystal identification polarized light microscopy

600.00

960.00

PATH481

Campylobacter in stool: Fastidious culture

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH482

Antigen detection with polyclonal antibodies

600

960.00

PATH483

Mycobacteria microscopy

480.00

600.00

PATH484

Antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH485

Concentration techniques for parasites

480.00

600.00

PATH486

Dark field, phase or interference contrast microscopy, Nomarski or Fontana

960.00

1,320.00

PATH487

Cytochemical stain

720.00

1,200.00

PATH488

Antibiotic susceptibility test: Per organism

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH489

Adhesive tape preparation

480.00

600.00

PATH490

Clostridium difficile toxin: Monoclonal immunological

3,480.00

PATH491

Antibiotic assay of tissues and fluids

1,800.00

2,640.00

PATH492

Blood culture: Aerobic

1,440.00

2,640.00

PATH493

Blood culture: Anaerobic

1,440.00

2,640.00

PATH494

Bacteriological culture: Miscellaneous

1,320.00

3,000.00

PATH495

Radiometric blood culture

1,440.00

2,520.00

PATH496

Bacteriological culture: Fastidious organisms

1,800.00

3,120.00

PATH497

In vivo culture: Bacteria

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH498

In vivo culture: Virus

2,040.00

2,040.00

PATH499

Bacterial exotoxin production (in vivo assay)

2,640.00

3,960.00

PATH500

Fungal culture

1,440.00

2,640.00

PATH501

Clostridium difficile (cytotoxicity neutralisation)

3,840.00

5,640.00

PATH502

Antibiotic level: Biological fluids

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH503

Rotavirus latex slide test

720.00

1,200.00

PATH504

Identification of virus or rickettsia

2,640.00

3,960.00

PATH505

Identification: Chlamydia

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH506

Culture for staphylococcus aureus

360.00

480.00

PATH507

Anaerobe culture: Comprehensive

3,480.00

5,280.00

PATH508

Anaerobe culture: Limited procedure

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH509

Beta-lactamase assay

600.00

960.00

PATH510

Sterility control test: Biological method

600.00

960.00

PATH511

Mycobacterium culture

3,240.00

5,520.00

PATH512

Radiometric tuberculosis culture

1,440.00

2,040.00

PATH513

Mycoplasma culture: Comprehensive

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH514

Identification of mycobacterium

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH515

Mycobacterium: Antibiotic sensitivity

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH516

Antibiotic synergistic study

2,640.00

3,960.00

PATH517

Viable cell count

360.00

360.00

PATH518

Biochemical identification of bacterium: Abridged

480.00

720.00

PATH519

Biochemical identification of bacterium: Extended

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH520

Serological identification of bacterium: Abridged

480.00

720.00

PATH521

Serological identification of bacterium: Extended

1,320.00

2,040.00

PATH522

Grouping for streptococci

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH523

Antimicrobic substances

600.00

720.00

PATH524

Radiometric mycobacterium identification

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH525

Radiometric mycobacterium antibiotic sensitivity

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH526

Helicobacter: Monoclonal immunological

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH527

HIV ELISA - Antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

2,040.00

2,760.00

PATH528

IgE: Total: EMIT or ELISA

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH529

Auto antibodies by labelled antibodies

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH530

Sperm antibodies

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH531

Virus neutralisation test: First antibody

9,360.00

14,160.00

PATH532

Virus neutralisation test: Each additional antibody

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH533

Precipitation test per antigen

600.00

960.00

PATH534

Agglutination test per antigen

720.00

1,200.00

PATH535

Cryptococcal Antigen

1,440.00

3,000.00

PATH536

Haemagglutination test: Per antigen

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH537

Modified Coombs' test for brucellosis

600.00

960.00

PATH538

Hepatitis Rapid Viral Ab

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH539

Antibody titer to bacterial exotoxin

600.00

720.00

PATH540

IgE: Specific antibody titer: ELISA/EMIT: Per Ag

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH541

Complement fixation test

720.00

1,200.00

PATH542

IgM: Specific antibody titer:ELISA/EMIT: Per Ag

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH543

C-reactive protein (CRP)

1,800.00

2,640.00

PATH544

IgG: Specific antibody titer: ELISA/EMIT: Per Ag

2,040.00

3,480.00

PATH545

Qualitative Kahn, VDRL or other flocculation

360.00

480.00

PATH546

Neutrophil phagocytosis

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH547

Quantitative Kahn, VDRL or other flocculation

600.00

720.00

PATH548

Neutrophil chemotaxis

8,520.00

12,720.00

PATH549

Tube agglutination test (others)

600.00

960.00

PATH550

Paul Bunnell: Presumptive

360.00

480.00

PATH551

Infectious mononucleosis latex slide test (Monospot orequivalent)

1,200.00

1,680.00

PATH552

Anti Gad/Ia2 Ab

8,520.00

12,720.00

PATH553

Rose Waaler agglutination test

600.00

960.00

PATH554

Gonococcal, listeria or echinococcus agglutination

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH555

Slide agglutination test

480.00

600.00

PATH556

Serum complement level: Each component

480.00

720.00

PATH557

Anti Ia2 Antibodies

4,680.00

6,840.00

PATH558

Anti Gad Antibodies

4,680.00

6,840.00

PATH559

Auto-antibody: Sensitized erythrocytes

600.00

960.00

PATH560

Herpes virus typing: Monoclonal immunological

2,640.00

3,960.00

PATH561

Western blot technique

9,240.00

13,920.00

PATH562

Epstein-Barr virus antibody titer

960.00

1,320.00

PATH563

Immuno-diffusion test: Per antigen

480.00

720.00

PATH564

Respiratory syncytial virus (ELISA technique)

4,560.00

6,720.00

PATH565

Immuno electrophoresis: Per immune serum

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH566

Polymerase chain reaction

9,360.00

14,160.00

PATH567

Indirect immuno-fluorescence test (bacterial, viral, parasitic)

2,040.00

2,400.00

PATH568

Lymphocyte transformation

6,480.00

9,720.00

PATH569

Bilharzia Ag Serum/Urine

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH570

Histone Ab

2,040.00

3,120.00

PATH571

Quantitative PCR (DNA/RNA) others

10,800.00

21,600.00

PATH572

Recombinant DNA technique per probe

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH573

Ribosomal RNA targeting for bacteriological identification

4,560.00

6,720.00

PATH574

Ribosomal RNA amplification for bacteriological identification

9,360.00

14,160.00

PATH575

Bacteriological DNA identification (LCR) per probe

3,240.00

4,800.00

PATH576

Bacteriological DNA identification (PCR) per test

7,680.00

14,040.00

PATH577

Mixed antiglobulin reaction: Semen

960.00

1,320.00

PATH578

Friberg test: Semen

1,920.00

2,760.00

PATH579

Kremer test: Semen

600.00

720.00

PATH580

Quantitative PCR - viral load (not HIV) - hepatitis C, hepatitis B, CMV, etc.

17,400.00

25,200.00

PATH581

Semen analysis: Cell count

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH582

Semen analysis: Cytology

1,080.00

1,440.00

PATH583

Semen analysis: Viability + motility - 6 hours

960.00

1,200.00

PATH584

Semen analysis: Supravital stain

720.00

1,200.00

PATH585

Seminal fluid: Alpha glucosidase

2,640.00

3,840.00

PATH586

Seminal fluid fructose

480.00

720.00

PATH587

Seminal fluid: Acid phosphatase

720.00

1,080.00

PATH588

Helicobacter: Pylori antigen test

1,920.00

4,080.00

PATH589

HIV Ab - Rapid Test

360.00

1,080.00

PATH590

Antibiotic MIC per organism per antibiotic

1,080.00

1,680.00

PATH591

Non-radiometric automated blood cultures

1,800.00

2,640.00

PATH592

Rapid automated bacterial identification per organism

1,920.00

2,880.00

PATH593

Rapid automated antibiotic susceptibility per organism

2,160.00

3,240.00

PATH594

Rapid automated MIC per organism per antibiotic

2,160.00

3,240.00

PATH595

Mycobacteria: MIC determination - E Test

2,160.00

3,240.00

PATH596

Mycobacteria: Identification HPLC

4,560.00

6,720.00

PATH597

Mycobacteria: Liquefied, consentrated, fluorochrome stain

1,320.00

1,920.00

PATH598

Transmission electron microscopy

10,680.00

15,840.00

PATH599

HIV Drug Resistance Testing

42,000.00

72,000.00

PATH600

HIV Viral Load

6,000.00

11,520.00

PATH601

HIV Qualitative DNA test

6,000.00

11,520.00

PATH602

Scanning electron microscopy

12,600.00

18,720.00

MOLECULAR STUDIES/PCR

—

—

PATH603

Specified additional analysis e.g. mosaicism, Fanconi anaemia, Fra X, additional staining techniques

9,000.00

13,440.00

PATH604

FISH procedure, including cell culture

14,760.00

22,080.00

PATH605

FISH analysis per probe system

4,560.00

6,840.00

PATH606

Blood: DNA extraction

5,760.00

8,640.00

PATH607

Blood: Genotype per person: Southern blotting

11,400.00

17,160.00

PATH608

Blood: Genotype per person: PCR

7,680.00

11,520.00

PATH609

Prenatal diagnosis: Amniotic fluid or chorionic tissue: DNAextraction

11,520.00

17,280.00

PATH610

Prenatal diagnosis: Amniotic fluid or chorionic tissue: Genotype per person: Southern blotting

24,120.00

36,000.00

PATH611

Prenatal diagnosis: Amniotic fluid or chorionic tissue:Genotype per person: PCR

15,480.00

23,040.00

PATH612

PCR - generic tests per marker

11,520.00

23,040.00

PATH613

DNA paternity test profile per individual

14,400.00

28,800.00

PATH614

Quantitative PCR (DNA/RNA) others

10,800.00

21,600.00

PATH615

Qualitative PCR (DNA/RNA) others

8,400.00

18,000.00

OTHER CONSULTATION WORK

—

—

PATH616

Attendance in theatre

7,200.00

21,600.00

PATH617

Sit-in consultancy per hour session

7,200.00

21,600.00

PATH618

Teaching consultancy per hour session

7,200.00

21,600.00

CODE

D001: FEES GUIDELINES FOR DENTAL PRACTITIONERS

A

Consultation Fees

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

IMPORTANT NOTE: Valid for 3 months

C001

General dentist

1,500.00

4,000.00

C002

Dental specialist

3,000.00

6,000.00

HOSPITAL VISIT

CONSULTATION FEES

Per visit

C003

Hospital visit-day

5,000.00

10,000.00

C004

Hospital visit-night

10,000.00

20,000.00

B Radiology

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

RAD001

Occlusal views

1,000.00

1,500.00

RAD002

Left / Right Bitewing (LBW /RBW)

1,000.00

1,500.00

RAD003

Bilateral Bitewings (BBW)

1,500.00

2,000.00

RAD004

Intraoral Periapical (IOPA)

1,000.00

1,500.00

RAD005

Orthopantomogram ( OPG )

2,000.00

3,000.00

RAD006

Cephalometric radiograph (Lateral Cephalogram)

3,500.00

5,000.00

RAD007

Sialogram

6,000.00

10,000.00

RAD008

TMJ Tomograms

2,000.00

4,000.00

RAD009

CBCT Single tooth

1,500.00

2,000.00

RAD010

CBCT Maxilla

8,000.00

12,000.00

RAD011

CBCT Right/Left Maxilla

4,000.00

7,000.00

RAD012

CBCT Mandible

8,000.00

12,000.00

RAD013

CBCT Right/Left Mandible

4,000.00

7,000.00

RAD014

Radiology Report

2,000.00

5,000.00

C

ORAL SURGERY BY GENERAL DENTIST

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

IMPORTANT NOTE: Oral Surgery cases that are diagnosed as complex will be reffered to Specialist Oral & MaxillofacialSurgeons

MOS001

Extraction - Uncomplicated

3,000.00

7,000.00

MOS002

Extraction - Complicated/Surgical

5,000.00

10,000.00

MOS003

Dismpaction (Surgical Odontectomy )

20,000.00

25,000.00

MOS004

Management of Alveolar Osteitis (Dry Socket)

6,000.00

8,000.00

MOS005

Dentoalveolar Debridement

10,000.00

15,000.00

MOS006

Incision & Drainage

6,000.00

10,000.00

MOS007

Apicectomy

15,000.00

30,000.00

MOS008

Dentoalveolar Splinting

14,000.00

18,000.00

MOS009

Soft Tissue Management

10,000.00

15,000.00

MOS010

Removal of Sutures & Post Operative Review

1,500.00

2,000.00

MOS011

Maxillo - Mandibular Fixation

20,000.00

40,000.00

D RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

Restorations/Fillings

RES001

Amalgam – one surface

4,000.00

6,000.00

RES002

Amalgam – two surfaces

5,000.00

8,000.00

RES003

Amalgam three surfaces

6,000.00

8,000.00

RES004

Complex multisurface Amalgam Filling (More than 3 surfaces)

7,000.00

9,000.00

RES005

Composite / Tooth coloured Filling (one surface)

5,000.00

6,000.00

RES006

Composite / Tooth coloured Filling (two surfaces)

6,000.00

7,000.00

RES007

Composite / Tooth coloured Filling (three surfaces)

7,000.00

9,000.00

RES008

Complex multisurface Tooth coloured Filling (More than 3surfaces)

8,000.00

9,000.00

RES009

Temporary / Provisional filling

3,000.00

5,000.00

RES010

Fissure sealant - per tooth

4,000.00

5,000.00

RES011

Preventive Resin Restorations (PRR)

4,000.00

5,000.00

RES012

Pins (each)

2,000.00

5,000.00

RES013

Metalic Post (each)

3,500.00

6,000.00

RES014

Fibre Post

12,000.00

15,000.00

RES015

Cast Post

15,000.00

25,000.00

E

ENDODONTICS (ROOT CANAL TREATMENT)

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

Charges Do not include Cost of Filling (Restoration) or Crown post Endodontic Treatment

END001

Pulputomy

10,000.00

15,000.00

Root Canal Treatment

END002

a) Anterior tooth

15,000.00

20,000.00

END003

b) Premolars

20,000.00

25,000.00

END004

c) Molars

25,000.00

40,000.00

END005

d) Accessory or Extra Canals (each)

10,000.00

15,000.00

END006

e) Retreatment of a previoulsy root treated tooth (Additional charge to the basic cost of Root Canal Treatment)

10,000.00

20,000.00

END007

f) Access through crowns (Additional Charge)

6,000.00

10,000.00

END008

Bleaching Non-vital (per tooth/Per session)

5,000.00

7,000.00

END009

Apico-ectomy (anterior teeth - (using MTA)

20,000.00

30,000.00

END010

Apico-ectomy (Posterior teeth - (using MTA)

40,000.00

50,000.00

END011

Hemisection/Root amputation (Exclude cost of RCC)

20,000.00

30,000.00

END012

Root submersion

15,000.00

20,000.00

END013

Repair of Perforation (using MTA) non-surgical

20,000.00

30,000.00

END014

Repair of Perforation (using MTA) Surgical

30,000.00

40,000.00

END015

Pulp Revascularization

40,000.00

50,000.00

END016

Removal of separated/Fractured Instruments plus RCC

30,000.00

50,000.00

END017

Endodontics Transplantation/Re- Implantation

20,000.00

35,000.00

END018

Apexification (using MTA)

30,000.00

40,000.00

END019

Apexification (using Calcium Hydroxide)

20,000.00

25,000.00

END020

Apexogenesis

20,000.00

30,000.00

END021

Endodontic Implants

50,000.00

80,000.00

END022

Vital Pulp Therapy (using Calcim Hydroxide)

5,000.00

7,000.00

F

PERIODONTICS

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

General Periodontics

PERI001

Scaling and polishing

6,000.00

15,000.00

PERI002

Prophylaxis

4,500.00

7,000.00

PERI003

Polishing and stain removal

3,600.00

8,000.00

PERI004

Management of Dentine Hypersensitivity Per appointment

3,600.00

10,000.00

PERI005

Full Mouth Flouride application (Flouridation)

3,000.00

5,000.00

PERI006

Root planing (per quadrant)

6,000.00

10,000.00

Periodontal Splinting

PERI007

Resin composite/wire splint (per sextant)

10,000.00

20,000.00

PERI008

Reinforced fiber splint (per sextant excluding cost of splint)

15,000.00

25,000.00

Perioldontal Surgery

PERI009

Open flap debridement (1 to 3 contiguous teeth or edentulous spans)

25,000.00

40,000.00

PERI010

Root coverage surgery using xenografts/allografts (exclude cost of graft)

30,000.00

40,000.00

PERI011

Root coverage surgery using autograft

40,000.00

60,000.00

PERI012

Frenectomy

10,000.00

15,000.00

PERI013

Crown lengthening (1 to 3 contiguous teeth)

15,000.00

30,000.00

PERI014

Gingivectomy (1 to 3 contiguous teeth)

15,000.00

25,000.00

PERI015

Gingivoplasty (1 to 3 contiguous teeth)

15,000.00

25,000.00

PERI016

Vestibuloplasty

20,000.00

40,000.00

PERI017

Root resection (excluding cost of endodontic therapy andsubsequent crown)

25,000.00

40,000.00

PERI018

Hemisection (excluding cost of endodontic therapy andsubsequent crown)

20,000.00

30,000.00

PERI019

Guided tissue regeneration per site (excluding cost of graftmaterial)

25,000.00

35,000.00

PERI020

Guided bone regeneration per site (excluding cost of graftmaterial)

25,000.00

35,000.00

PERI021

Block grafts (excluding cost of graft)

100,000.00

120,000.00

PERI022

Alveoloplasty

20,000.00

30,000.00

PERI023

Socket preservation per extraction site (excluding cost ofgraft material)

10,000.00

15,000.00

Surgical Phase of Oral Implantology

Exlusive of Costs of Implant Fixtures, Healing Abutments & Provisional prothesis / restorations. Cost of implantfixtures will vary depnending on the choice of implant selected

PERI024

Development of implant therapy treatment plan (excluding cost of radiological examination)

As per theconsultationcharges

As per theconsultationcharges

PERI025

Single implant placement (excluding cost of implantfixture)

60,000.00

80,000.00

PERI027

Subsequent non contiguous implant placement in the samequadrant (excluding cost of fixture)

35,000.00

50,000.00

PERI028

Implant exposure (excluding cost of healing abutment)

15,000.00

20,000.00

PERI029

Removal of failed implant

35,000.00

50,000.00

PERI030

Scaling of implant fixture (excluding cost of general scaling)

5,000.00

8,000.00

PERI031

Sinus lift (Closed Sinus Lift) (excluding cost of graft material)

45,000.00

60,000.00

PERI032

Lateralisation of mandibular canal

120,000.00

150,000.00

PERI033

Application of locally delivered antimicrobials per site (excluding cost of antimicrobials)

3,000.00

5,000.00

PERI034

Supportive periodontal therapy

5,000.00

10,000.00

PERI035

Collecting and processing blood for platelet rich plasma

8,000.00

12,000.00

G

PROSTHODONTICS

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

Fixed prosthodontics

PROS001

Diagnostic cast / Study Models

3,600.00

4,800.00

PROS002

Wax up per unit

2,000.00

4,000.00

PROS003

Prefabricated post & core

15,000.00

20,000.00

PROS004

Cast post and core ( excluding cost of gold)

20,000.00

30,000.00

Crowns

PROS005

Temporary crown per unit

10,000.00

15,000.00

PROS006

Metal ceramic Crown

40,000.00

55,000.00

PROS007

Ceramic / Zirconia / Emax Crown

45,000.00

60,000.00

PROS008

Full gold crown

60,000.00

80,000.00

PROS009

Implant retained crown per unit (excluding cost of components)

40,000.00

55,000.00

PROS010

Fixed Definitive Bridge (Charges are per Unit)

40,000.00

55,000.00

Provisional Maryland Bridge

PROS011

Composite (per unit)

15,000.00

20,000.00

PROS012

Porcelain/Ceramic Fused to Metal (per unit)

40,000.00

55,000.00

PROS013

Recementation of crown or bridge per unit

5,000.00

10,000.00

PROS014

Removal of crown /bridge per unit

8,000.00

12,000.00

Veneers per unit:

PROS015

Direct composite Venneers

10,000.00

15,000.00

PROS016

Indirect Composite Venners

25,000.00

30,000.00

PROS017

Ceramic / Porcelain Venners

30,000.00

40,000.00

PROS018

Inlays /onlays (excluding cost of alloy)

30,000.00

45,000.00

PROS019

Repair of fractured procelain

10,000.00

15,000.00

Prosthodontic Phase of Oral Implantology

PROS020

Temporary implant restoration (excluding cost of components)

15,000.00

30,000.00

PROS021

Permanent / Definitive implant retained restoration - crown or bridge (excluding cost of components)

40,000.00

60,000.00

Removable prosthodontics

PROS022

Complete upper and lower denture

40,000.00

60,000.00

PROS023

Single complete denture

25,000.00

35,000.00

Acrylic Removable Partial Dentures

PROS024

Acrylic Removable Partial Denture 1 -3 teeth

12,000.00

15,000.00

PROS025

Acrylic Removable Partial Denture 4-6 teeth

15,000.00

25,000.00

PROS026

Acrylic Removable Partial Denture 7 or more

25,000.00

40,000.00

PROS027

Repair of broken acrylic denture: Without impression

4,000.00

7,000.00

PROS028

Repair of broken acrylic denture: With Impression

8,000.00

10,000.00

PROS029

Cobalt chrome Removable Partial Denture (excluding lab fee)

40,000.00

70,000.00

PROS030

Repair of cobalt chrome RPD

8,000.00

10,000.00

PROS031

Addition of a tooth on denture

5,000.00

10,000.00

PROS032

Soft/Hard reline

8,000.00

10,000.00

PROS033

Michigan splint

40,000.00

60,000.00

PROS034

Mouth guard

10,000.00

15,000.00

Maxillofacial prosthodontics

PROS036

Obturator with acrylic base

40,000.00

60,000.0

PROS037

Obturator with cobalt chrome base

80,000.00

100,000.00

PROS038

Facial prothesis

Case Dependent

Case Dependent

H PAEDIATRIC DENTISTRY

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

PAED001

Fissure sealant

4,000.00

6,000.00

PAED002

Fluoride varnish application

5,000.00

7,000.00

PAED003

Preventive resin restoration

6,000.00

8,000.00

PAED004

Pulpotomy

10,000.00

15,000.00

PAED005

Pulpectomy

15,000.00

20,000.00

PAED006

Uncomplicated extraction

3,000.00

6,000.00

PAED007

Stainless steel Crown

10,000.00

15,000.00

PAED008

Restorative dentistry

Refer tocharges inrestorativesection

PAED009

Prophylaxis, Scaling, Root planning, Gingivoplasty, Gingivectomy, Frenectomy

Refer tocharges inPeriodonticssection

PAED010

Dentures

Refer tochargesprosthodonticssection

PAED011

Minor oral surgery

Refer tocharges insurgery section

PAED012

Root canal treatment, apexification, apexogenesis and other endodontic treatment procedures

Refer tocharges inendodonticssection

PAED013

Study models and orthodontic treatment procedures

Refer tocharges inorthodonticssection

I

ORTHODONTICS

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

Diagnosis + treatment planning

ORTH001

Orthodontic Study models

3,000.00

8,000.00

Photographs

1,000.00

5,000.00

ORTH003

Diagnosis + treatment planning

Charge as perconsultation

Charge as perconsultation

ORTH004

Orthodontic diagnostic setup

Charge as perconsultation

Charge as perconsultation

ORTH005

Treatment planning orthognathic Surgery

Charge as perconsultation

Charge as perconsultation

Comprehensive Fixed Orthodontic Treatment

ORTH006

Single arch Orthodontics - Mild & Moderate Malocclusion

75,000.00

150,000.00

ORTH007

Class I Malocclusion - Mild & Moderate

150,000.00

250,000.00

ORTH008

Class I Malocclusion - Severe

187,500.00

350,000.00

ORTH009

Class I Malocclusion - Severe + Complications

262,500.00

400,000.00

ORTH010

Class II + III - Mild

112,500.00

250,000.00

ORTH011

Class II + III - Moderate

187,500.00

300,000.00

ORTH012

Class II + III - Severe

225,000.00

480,000.00

ORTH013

Class II + III - Severe + Complications

375,000.00

600,000.00

ORTH014

Re-bonding of brackets/attachments/bands

2,250.00

5,000.00

ORTH015

Implant- aided orthodontics (TADs Temporary Achorage Devices) - per implant

30,000.00

60,000.00

ORTH016

Sectional Fixed Appliance per arch

37,500.00

100,000.00

Lingual Orthodontics

ORTH017

Single arch - Mild & Moderate

150,000.00

300,000.00

ORTH018

Single arch - severe

240,000.00

400,000.00

ORTH019

Class I Malocclusion - Mild & Moderate

315,000.00

500,000.00

ORTH020

Class I Malocclusion - Severe

390,000.00

600,000.00

ORTH021

Class I Maloccl. - Severe + Complications

465,000.00

700,000.00

ORTH022

Class II + III - mild

375,000.00

600,000.00

ORTH023

Class II + III - moderate

412,500.00

650,000.00

ORTH024

Class II + III - severe

510,000.00

720,000.00

ORTH025

Class II + III - severe + complications

562,500.00

1,000,000.00

Interceptive Orthodontics

ORTH026

First Removable appliance per arch

22,500.00

50,000.00

ORTH027

Fixed Interceptive Orthodontics Appliance

37,500.00

75,000.00

ORTH028

Subsequent Removable appliance

11,250.00

30,000.00

ORTH029

Removable Habit Breaker

15,000.00

40,000.00

ORTH030

Fixed Habit breaker

26,250.00

60,000.00

ORTH031

Fixed Space Maintainer per arch

15,000.00

40,000.00

Retentive Phase of Orthodontics

ORTH032

Removable retainer per arch

15,000.00

35,000.00

ORTH033

Fixed retainer per arch

18,750.00

40,000.00

Correction of Dentofacial Anomalies

ORTH034

Functional appliance

37,500.00

100,000.00

ORTH035

Bite plate for TMJ dysfunction

15,000.00

40,000.00

ORTH036

Major occlusal adjustment

15,000.00

25,000.00

ORTH037

Minor occlusal adjustment

7,500.00

15,000.00

ORTH038

Cleft palate: Consultation Out of surgery

As perConsultation

As perConsultation

ORTH039

Cleft palate: Subsequent consultations

As perConsultation

As perConsultation

ORTH040

Passive presurgical protheses

15,000.00

45,000.00

ORTH041

Active Presurgical Orthopaedic Appliance

33,750.00

90,000.00

J

AESTHETIC DENTISTRY

Minimum(KES)

(KES) Maximum

ORTH043

Tooth Whitening / Bleaching per Arch (Take Home Bleach including the gel)

24,000.00

36,000.00

ORTH044

Chairside Tooth Whitening (Power Bleaching / Zoom Bleaching)

35,000.00

50,000.00

ORTH045

Microabrasion (per tooth)

5,000.00

7,000.00

K

DENTAL TREATMENT UNDER GENERAL ANAESTHESIA

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

Fees outlined are Dental Surgeon's fees only : Excluding theatre/hospital fees, materials and anaesthetists fees

DGA001

Children : Multiple fillings (Full Mouth Restorations - FMR) & or Extractions

60,000.00

100,000.00

DGA002

Adults : Multiple fillings /extractions

60,000.00

100,000.00

L

DENTAL TREATMENT UNDER CONSCIOUS SEDATION

Minimum(KES)

Maximum(KES)

Fees outlined are for conscious sedation 1-2 hours in a dentalsurgery with these facilities: (Excluding anaesthetists fess &cost of dental procedures. An Anaesthetist is required for this conscious sedation)

DCONSED01

Children

Charge as perprocedure

Charge as perprocedure

DCONSED02

Adults

Charge asper procedure

Charge as perprocedure

OMFS001: FEE GUIDELINES FOR ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY

Specialists Consultation Fees

Consultations

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

OMFS001

First visit

3,600.00

7,500.00

OMFS002

Follow up Consulation for the Same Condition

3,600.00

7,200.00

House Visits NB (Consultations only. Incidentals to be agreed upon by the parties)

Minimum (KES)

Maximum(KES)

OMFS003

Day Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

OMFS004

Night Time

12,000.00

18,000.00

Hospital Visits

OMFS005

Day Time

6,000.00

12,000.00

OMFS006

Emergency Night visits

12,000.00

18,000.00

OMFS007

Emergency Day visits

7,200.00

12,000.00

OMFS008 ICU

Visit (Daily charges)

7,200.00

10,000.00

OMFS009

HDU Visit (Daily charges)

6,000.00

7,500.00

OMFS010

Witnessing a postmortem

24,000.00

60,000.00

A) Minor Surgery

Minimum (KES)

Maximum (KES)

OMFS011

Incision & Drainage dentoalveolar abscess (I&D)

7,800.00

15,600.00

OMFS012

Cervical lymph node biopsy

15,600.00

31,200.00

OMFS013

MUA # nose

39,000.00

46,800.00

OMFS014

Intranasal antrostomy

39,000.00

46,800.00

B) Intermediate I

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

OMFS015

Surgical removal supernumerary/other teeth

15,600.00

39,000.00

OMFS016

Transplantation/reimplantation of teeth

31,200.00

54,600.00

OMFS017

EUA

39,000.00

54,600.00

OMFS018

Removal of bone plates

31,200.00

54,600.00

OMFS019

Reduction of alveolar fracture

39,000.00

54,600.00

OMFS020

Sequestrectomy/Decortication Mandible/Maxilla

39,000.00

54,600.00

OMFS021

Tracheostomy: routine

23,400.00

39,000.00

OMFS022

Intermediate facaial soft tissue repair

23,400.00

46,800.00

OMFS023

Exploration/removal facial foreign bodies

23,400.00

46,800.00

OMFS024

TMJ athroscopy

39,000.00

54,600.00

OMFS025

Endoscopic EUA/biopsy

39,000.00

54,600.00

OMFS026

Incision & Drainage head and neck abscess

23,400.00

39,000.00

OMFS027

Posterior apicectomy

23,400.00

39,000.00

OMFS028

Septoplasty – simple

31,200.00

70,200.00

OMFS029

Sinus Lift

80,000.00

140,000.00

C) Intermediate II

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

OMFS030

Surgical removal of impacted third molars

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS031

Surgical exposure/removal of impacted canines

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS032

Closure of oro – antral fistula

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS033

Caldwell-Luc procedure

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS034

Elevation # zygoma: closed

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS035

Exploration of submandibular/parotid gland duct

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS036

Ennucleation of mandibular/maxillary mass

2,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS037

Excision of head and neck lipoma

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS038

Submandibular gland Sialadenectomy

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS039

Sublingual gland Sialadenectomy

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS040

Vestibuloplasty & skin graft

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS041

Excision of oral/facial fibroosseous lesion

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS042

Coronoidectomy

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS043

Temporalis/Masseter Myotomy

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS044

Cryotherapy to V Nerve branches/Minor Haemangioma

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS045

Cheiloplasty

62,400.00

109,200.00

OMFS046

Minor oral/facial bone/cartilage onlay graft

62,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS047

Torticollis/Fibromatosis Colli correction

2,400.00

93,600.00

OMFS048

Lip shave & Mucosal Advancement Flap

62,400.00

117,000.00

OMFS049

Wedge excision & primary closure lip

62,400.00

117,000.00

OMFS050

Excision facial BCC & local flap reconstruction

62,400.00

117,000.00

OMFS051

Excision/revision of facial scar

62,400.00

117,000.00

OMFS052

Primary repair bilateral cleft lip

62,400.00

124,800.00

OMFS053

Primary repair bilateral/complete cleft palate

62,400.00

124,800.00

OMFS054

Pharyngoplasty

62,400.00

124,800.00

OMFS055

Revision cleft lip/nose/palatoplasty

62,400.00

124,800.00

D) Major I

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

OMFS056

Closed reduction # mandible/maxilla

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS057

Segmental osteotomy mandible/maxilla

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS058

Excision of thyroglossal cyst

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS059

Removal of branchial/thyroglossal neck cyst

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS060

Superficaial parotidectomy

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS061

Extraoral/intraoral implants

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS062

Ridge augmentation/sinus lift

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS063

Genioplasty:augmentation/reduction

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS064

Tongue reduction

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS065

Open joint procedure TMJ

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS066

Closure cleft oronasal fistula & bone graft

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS067

Excision of scalp lesion & Wolfe graft

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS068

Open rhinoplastry & auricular cartilage grafts

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS069

Partial thickness skin graft to oral defect – minor

93,600.00

124,800.00

OMFS070

Full thickness skin/composite graft oral defect

93,600.00

124,800.00

E) Major II

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

OMFS071

ORIF # Zygoma

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS072

Exploration/graft orbital #

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS073

ORIF Nasoethmoid/frontal #

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS074

ORIF # Maxilla (Le Fort I)

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS075

ORIF # Mandible

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS076

Major facial soft tissue repair

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS077

Mandibular ostectomy (Le Fort I/cleft) (SS/VS/EO)

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS078

Maxillary Osteotomy (Le Fort I/cleft)

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS079

Postcondylar cartilage graft

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS080

Salivary duct redirection (Wilkie procedure)

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS081

Cleft alveolar bone graft

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS082

Excision facial hemangioma/lymphangioma

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS083

Nerve exploration & microsurgical repair

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS084

Primary repair unilateral cleft lip

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS085

Primary repair unilateral/incomplete cleft palate

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS086

Closed Rhinoplasty

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS087

Radical/modified neck dissection (RMND)

140,400.00

187,200.00

OMFS088

Radical Parotidectomy

140,400.00

187,200.00

F) Complex Major

Minimum (KES)

//Maximum(KES)//

OMFS089

ORIF # zygoma & orbit – complex comminuted

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS090

ORIF # nasoethmoid

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS091

Frontal & Canthopexy

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS092

ORIF # maxilla (Le Fort II/III) – unilateral

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS093

ORIF # maxilla (Le Fort II/III) – bilateral

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS094

ORIF # mandible — complex comminuted

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS095

Complex facial soft tissue repair (STR)

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS096

Complex facial STR & VIIn/parotid duct repair

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS097

Radical Parotidectomy & VIIn graft

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS098

Le Fort II/Kufener midfacial osteotomy

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS099

Bimaxillary osteotomy

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS100

Costochondral graft to mandible

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS101

Hypertelorism correction

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS102

Secondary craniofacial reconstruction

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS103

Closed rhinoplasty

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS104

RMND & Mandibulectomy/Maxillectomy

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS105

RMND & reconstruction plate/bone graft

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS106

RMND & glossectomy/oral cancer resection

156,000.00

312,000.00

OMFS107

RMND & pedicled flap/microvascualr free flap

156,000.00

312,000.00

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REFERRAL OF PATIENTS ABROAD) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpetation
3.

Referral of patients abroad
4.

Qualification and Responsibility of the referring practitioner
5.

Category and accreditation abroad
6.

Referral process
7.

Professional misconduct

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE [r. 6(1)] —

REFERRAL FORM

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (REFERRAL OF PATIENTS ABROAD) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Referral of Patients Abroad) Rules.
2.
Interpetation

ln these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"abroad" means outside the borders of Kenya;

"medical management" means medical interventions including diagnosis, treatment and follow up;

"receiving facility" means an institution or hospital outside Kenya where a patient has been referred to; and

"referral" means the transfer of a patient from one hospital or practitioner to another for purposes of consultation, treatment, review or further action.
3.
Referral of patients abroad
(1)

A medical or dental practitioner may refer a patient for medical or dental management abroad where—

(a)

there is evidence that there is inadequate expertise or medical facilities to handle the condition locally;
(b)

there is evidence that the referral would be the most cost effective option for the patient, or
(c)

the patient has opted to seek medical intervention or management abroad where public resources are not used.
(2)

Save wherein a patient consents, a medical or dental practitioner shall not be compelled to give information regarding a patient to third parties for purposes of referral.
4.
Qualification and Responsibility of the referring practitioner

The referring medical or dental practitioner shall—

(a)

be duly registered and licensed by the Board and of good standing;
(b)

be a specialist or sub-specialist in the area in which the patient is being referred for;
(c)

act in the best interest of the patient;
(d)

ensure that there shall be significant health benefits to the patient in seeking treatment abroad;
(e)

ensure that the referral is for curative, specialized diagnostic purposes or rehabilitative services;
(f)

provide the patient or guardian with relevant information on the expected treatment; and
(g)

ensure an appropriate review and follow up mechanism is established upon the patient's return.
5.
Category and accreditation abroad

A medical or dental practitioner shall refer a patient for treatment abroad to—

(a)

a medical or dental practitioner who has the requisite recognized credentials to offer the level of the required specialized service;
(b)

a receiving institution that has recognition from the regulatory authority of the receiving country to offer the required service;
(c)

a receiving institution that is above or the equivalent to a Level 5 or Level 6 category facility in Kenya; or
(d)

a receiving institution that has recognized international accreditation.
6.
Referral process
(1)

A medical or dental practitioner shall refer a patient abroad in the Referral Form set out in the Schedule.
(2)

The Referral Form shall be accompanied by—

(a)

a comprehensive medical report by the referring practitioner;
(b)

a letter of confirmation from the receiving facility;
(c)

a letter of no objection from the Office of the Director of Medical Services; and
(d)

proof of adequate funding.
7.
Professional misconduct

A practitioner shall be culpable of professional misconduct if such practitioner—

(a)

refers a patient where the health outcome will not improve;
(b)

discloses information acquired in the course of professional engagement to an unauthorized third party without the consent of the patient, or otherwise than required by law; and
(c)

refers or agrees to refer a patient for personal and/or financial gain.

SCHEDULE

[r. 6(1)]

REFERRAL FORM

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS ACT(Cap. 253)REFERRAL FORM FOR MEDICAL MANAGEMENT ABROAD

PART A-To be filled by the patient

i. BIO DATA OF THE PATIENTSurname: .................................................... First name..............................Other name(s)..................................................................................ID/Passport No: .................................... Date of Birth: ................................Age: ..................... Gender: € Female € MaleP.O. Box ................................... Code .................................. Town ......................County ..........................................................................Email address ............................................................Telephone No ......................................... Mobile No ..........................................Source of funding (Tick (√) where appropriate)Self-fundedNational Hospital Insurance FundPrivate InsuranceGovernment sponsoredOther, specify ........................................................................................................................................

ii. DETAILS OF THE NEXT OF KINSurname: .................................................... First name..............................Other name(s)..................................................................................ID/Passport No: .................................... Date of Birth: ................................Relationship ...................................................................................P.O. Box ................................... Code .................................. Town ......................County ..........................................................................Email address ............................................................Telephone No ......................................... Mobile No ..........................................

iii. DETAILS OF THE ACCOMPANYING CARE-GIVER (If different from B above-Surname: .................................................... First name..............................Other name(s)..................................................................................ID/Passport No: .................................... Date of Birth: ................................P.O. Box ................................... Code .................................. Town ......................County ..........................................................................Email address ............................................................Telephone No ......................................... Mobile No ..........................................

iv. DETAILS OF THE DONOR (Where Appropriate)Surname: .................................................... First name..............................Other name(s)..................................................................................ID/Passport No: .................................... Date of Birth: ................................Relationship ...................................................................................P.O. Box ................................... Code .................................. Town ......................County ..........................................................................Email address ............................................................Telephone No ......................................... Mobile No ..........................................

v. DECLARATIONI .............................................. hereby declare that the information given above is true to the best of my knowledge and belief.Signature: ........................................................Date ................................................................

PART B - To be filled in by the Referring Practitioner

(a) MEDICAL DETAILS OF THE PATIENT(1) Provisional diagnosis ..........................................................................................................................................................................(2) Reason for referral: ........................................................................................................(3) Expected Treatment...........................................................................................................................................(4) Expected Outcome...........................................................................................................................................(5) Plan for review and follow-up upon return of the patient to the country .....................................................................................................................................................

**(b) DETAILS OF THE RECEIVING FACILITY/PRACTITIONER1. Receiving Facility**Name of facility: ...................................................................................................................................................................City: ............................................. Country: ........................Physical address: .................................................................................................................................................Postal address: ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................E-mail: .............................................................................Telephone/Mobile No ...................................................2. Practitioner/Contact Person:Name: ..............................................................................Qualification: ..................................................................E-mail address ...............................................................Telephone/Mobile No ..................................................

(c) CERTIFICATION BY THE REFERRING PRACTITIONERDetails of referring practitioner:Surname: .................................. First Name: .......................Other name(s):...........................................................Qualification ............................................................Specialty ....................................................................Sub-specialty ............................................................Reg. No: ........................... License No: .........................P.O. Box .......................... Code .................... Town ..................County ....................................................................Email address .......................................................................Telephone No ............................... Mobile No .......................I certify that the information given in Part A and B regarding Mr/Mrs/Ms/Mst ................... is true to the best of my knowledge and belief.Signature: .............................................................Date .....................................................................

PART C - To be filled in by the Kenya Medical Practitioners and Dentists Board

I wish to confirm that Dr. .................. is registered under Registration Number ..............., validity licensed under current License No: ............ and is of good standing.Name ........................ Signature ........................... Date ........................Chief Executive OfficerKenya Medical Practitioners and Dentists Boar

PART D - To be filled in by the Director of Medical Services

Approval is hereby given for .................... who has been referred by Dr ............ to travel abroad for medical/dental management in ....................... (country).Name .............................. Signature ........................ Date ....................Director of Medical Services

MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (INQUIRY AND DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS) (PROCEDURE) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

PART I – PRELIMINARY

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation

PART II – DISCIPLINARY AND ETHICS COMMITTEE

3.

The Disciplinary and Ethics Committee
4.

Functions of the Disciplinary and Ethics Committee

PART III – LODGING OF COMPLAINT

5.

Application
6.

Institution of inquiry
7.

Complaints
8.

Interim orders
9.

Assessment of the complaint
10.

Service of complaint
11.

Response to a complaint
12.

Failure to respond
13.

Reference of complaint
14.

Appearance before the Committee
15.

Power to determine complaint without hearing

PART IV – HEARING PROCEDURE

16.

Guiding principles
17.

Right to appear before the Committee
18.

Hearing Notice
19.

Summons and orders
20.

Pre-hearing directions
21.

Failure to comply with directions
22.

Language of proceedings
23.

Non-appearance by the Respondent
24.

Hearing procedure
25.

Hearing and determination of matters in the absence of parties
26.

Consolidation of proceedings
27.

Exclusion of persons disrupting the proceedings
28.

Adjournment of proceedings
29.

Evidence
30.

Information
31.

Amendment of pleadings
32.

Extension of time
33.

Judicial notice

PART V – DECISIONS OF THE COMMITTEE

34.

Decisions of the Committee
35.

Reasons of decisions
36.

Taking proceedings
37.

Review
38.

Appeal
39.

Application for restoration to the register
40.

Revocation LN 157 of 1979

MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (INQUIRY AND DISCIPLINARY PROCEEDINGS) (PROCEDURE) RULES
PART I – PRELIMINARY
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Inquiry and Disciplinary Proceedings) (Procedure) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"complainant" means a body or person that makes a complaint of professional misconduct, malpractice or any breach of standards to the Council;

"inquiry" means a disciplinary inquiry held by the Council to determine the complaint made under subsection 20(2) of the Act;

"notice of inquiry" means a written and signed notice from the Council which is sent to medical practitioner or dentist against whom a complaint has been made specifying matters upon which the inquiry is to be held, and stating the date;

"small claim matter" means a complaint of alleged professional misconduct that does not involve clinical management;

"unprofessional conduct" means conduct that falls short of what is reasonably expected of a professional in the course of their practice.
PART II – DISCIPLINARY AND ETHICS COMMITTEE
3.
The Disciplinary and Ethics Committee
(1)

Pursuant to section 4A(1)(b), the Council shall constitute the Disciplinary and Ethics Committee consisting of–

(a)

three members of the Council, one of whom shall be the chairperson;
(b)

two other persons whose knowledge and skills are necessary for the proper determination of any matter before it co-opted to the Committee by the Council.
(2)

The chairperson of the Committee shall preside over all meetings of the Committee and in the absence of the chairperson, the members of the Council present at the meeting shall elect one of their number to chair the meeting.
(3)

A person co-opted under paragraph (1)(b) shall attend the meetings of the Committee and participate in its deliberations.
(4)

The decisions of the Committee shall be by consensus.
(5)

The Committee shall present its reports to the Council for approval and ratification.
4.
Functions of the Disciplinary and Ethics Committee
(1)

The Committee, shall have all the powers necessary for the execution of its functions under section 4A(b) of the Act.
(2)

Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1), the Commission shall have powers to—

(a)

conduct inquiries into and hearings over complaints submitted to it at such times and places as the Council shall determine;
(b)

ensure that the necessary administrative and evidential arrangements have been met;
(c)

develop and regularly review the code of professional conduct for ethical and good practice for persons registered under the Act;
(d)

constitute as required sub-committees to inquire into and determine the fitness to practice and operate of persons registered under the Act;
(e)

administer oaths;
(f)

summon persons to attend and give evidence; and
(g)

order for the production of relevant documents.
PART III – LODGING OF COMPLAINT
5.
Application

The provisions of this Part shall apply to proceedings conducted by the Disciplinary and Ethics Committee or with necessary modifications, to an inquiry or hearing held by the Council.
6.
Institution of inquiry

The Council may institute an inquiry into the conduct of a registered or licensed person on the Council’s own initiative, on matters of public interest that have been brought to the attention of the Council, or upon the receipt of a complaint to the Council, in writing made by or on behalf of a person who is dissatisfied with any professional service offered by a registered or licensed person.
7.
Complaints
(1)

Any person who is dissatisfied with any professional service offered, or alleges a breach of standards by a registered or licensed person under this Act, may lodge a complaint in the prescribed form.
(2)

The complaint shall be accompanied by–

(a)

a statement clearly setting out the particulars of the medical practitioner dentist, community oral health officer or health institution and service complained being complained about and the nature of the complaint; and
(b)

any supporting documentation or evidence.
(3)

Upon receipt of a complaint, the officer receiving the complaint shall assign it a reference number, and create a record of the complaint indicating the particulars of the complaint including–

(a)

the particulars of the complainant;
(b)

the particulars of the medical practitioner, dentist, community oral health officer or health institution, complained against;
(c)

the nature of the complaint;
(d)

a record of the accompanying documents; and
(e)

such other particulars as the Council may specify.
8.
Interim orders

The Council may, where it considers it expedient, make such interim orders as may be necessary for the preservation of patient safety.
9.
Assessment of the complaint

The Council shall review a complaint to determine whether they are within the mandate of the Council.
10.
Service of complaint

The Council shall within seven days of receipt of a complaint serve the complaint upon the medical practitioner or dentist against whom a complaint has been made by post or by any other means approved by the Council.
11.
Response to a complaint

A medical practitioner or dentist upon whom a complaint was served under paragraph 10 shall within fourteen days of service, of a complaint file a response.
12.
Failure to respond

Where a medical practitioner or a dentist served with summons fails to file a response within the time specified in regulation 8,—

(a)

the inquiry may proceed in his or her absence; and
(b)

the medical practitioner or a dentist commits an act of professional misconduct or an offence under the Act.
13.
Reference of complaint
(1)

Where it is determined that a complaint is within the mandate of the Council, the complaint shall be referred to the Committee to inquire into the complaint, to verify the facts and other details of the complaint in order to determine the action to be taken.
(2)

The Committee may after the review of a complaint

(a)

hear and determine the complaint; or
(b)

refer the complaint to the Council or other Committee together with its findings and recommendations; or
(c)

refer the complaint for alternative dispute resolution.
14.
Appearance before the Committee

The Committee shall summon before it every person against whom a complaint is made to appear before a the Committee for the purpose of inquiry and may require such person to produce any document in his possession or under his control that in any way relate to the complaint or inquiry and may hear any evidence and inspect any document which the complainant or the party complained against may desire to adduce.
15.
Power to determine complaint without hearing

The Committee may determine a complaint or issues arising therefrom without an oral hearing.
PART IV – HEARING PROCEDURE
16.
Guiding principles

In the determination of complaints under these Rules, the Committee shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and shall not be bound by any legal or technical rules of evidence applicable to proceedings before a court of law.
17.
Right to appear before the Committee

A person against whom the complaint is made shall have the right to appear before the Committee to be heard either personally or through his advocate and may call such evidence and produce such documents as may be relevant to the inquiry.
18.
Hearing Notice
(1)

The Committee shall, after the respondent has filed a response to the complaint, fix a time, date and place for the hearing the of the complaint and notify the parties.
(2)

Unless the parties to the complaint otherwise agree, each party shall be entitled to not less than seven days' notice of the time, date and place fixed for the hearing.
19.
Summons and orders
(1)

The Committee may issue summons, to any person to attend as a witness or to produce any documents.
(2)

A person summoned to give evidence before the Committee shall be given at least seven days' notice of the hearing unless the person has informed the Committee that he or she accepts a shorter notice if given.
20.
Pre-hearing directions
(1)

The Committee may on its own motion or on application by a party to the proceedings give directions, including directions for the furnishing of further particulars or supplementary statements, as may be necessary to enable the parties prepare for the hearing or assist the Committee determine the issues related to the hearing before it.
(2)

The Committee may take into account the need to protect any matter that relates to the intimate, personal or financial circumstance of any party, consists of information communicated or obtained in confidence, or concerns national security and may order that all or part of the evidence of a person be heard in private or prohibit or restrict the publication of that evidence.
(3)

An application for directions shall be made to the Committee, in writing, and shall, unless accompanied by the written consent of all parties, be served on all other parties to the proceedings by the party seeking directions.
(4)

The Committee shall consider an objection to the application for directions, if any party objects the application, and give the parties an opportunity to appear and the objection heard where the Committee considers it necessary.
21.
Failure to comply with directions
(1)

Where a person fails to comply with directions given under these rule 20, the Committee may, before or at the hearing of the complaint–

(a)

dismiss the whole or part of the complaint, where the failure to comply is by the complainant;
(b)

strike out the whole or part of a respondent’s reply where the respondent; or
(c)

direct that the person who has failed to comply be excluded from participating in the hearing.
(2)

The Committee shall not dismiss, strike out or give any directions under subrule (1) unless it has served a notice on the party who has failed to comply with the directions and has given the party an opportunity to be heard.
22.
Language of proceedings
(1)

The Committee shall conduct its proceedings in English or Kiswahili.
(2)

The Committee may allow an application lodged in any other language by persons or a group of persons directly affected by the subject matter of the application, and require such persons or group of persons to provide a translation within a reasonable time.
(3)

The Committee shall, taking into account all the circumstances, provide a competent interpreter to a party or witness who does not speak or understand English or Kiswahili at the hearing.
(4)

The rulings of the Committee shall be prepared in the English language but may be translated, on request by a party, into the Kiswahili.
23.
Non-appearance by the Respondent
(1)

Where a person without reasonable excuse, fails to appear either personally or by his or her representative at the time and place fixed in the notice of hearing served on him—

(a)

the inquiry may proceed in his or her absence; and
(b)

the person commits an act of professional misconduct or offence under the Act.
(2)

If a person appearing at the inquiry or hearing, without reasonable excuse—

(a)

refuses or fails to be sworn or affirmed;
(b)

refuses or fails to answer a question that he or she is required, by the Chair of the Committee, to answer; or
(c)

refuses or fails to produce a document that he or she was required to produce by a summons served, on him or her, the Committee may make such directions as it may consider necessary and appropriate under the circumstances of the case.
24.
Hearing procedure
(1)

The chairperson shall, at the commencement of the hearing, explain the order of proceedings which the Committee proposes to adopt.
(2)

The Committee shall conduct the hearing in such manner as it considers suitable for the determination of the application or the clarification of issues before it and generally for the just handling of the proceedings and shall, in so far as it may be appropriate, avoid legal technicality and formality in its proceedings.
(3)

The parties shall be heard in such order as the Committee shall determine, and shall be entitled to give evidence, call a witness, and address the Committee on both evidence and generally on the subject matter of the application or matter before the Committee.
(4)

The parties and their witnesses may give evidence before the Committee orally, on oath or after affirmation or, if the Committee so orders, by affidavit or written statement, but the Committee may at any stage of the proceedings require the personal attendance of any deponent or author of a written statement.
(5)

The Committee may receive evidence of any fact, which appears to it to be relevant to the matter or an application before the Committee.
(6)

The Committee may, during the hearing and if it satisfied that it is just and reasonable to do so, permit a party to rely on grounds not stated in the party’s notice of application or, as the case may be, the party’s reply and to adduce any evidence not earlier presented to the Committee.
(7)

The Committee shall grant to any party a reasonable opportunity—

(a)

to be heard, submit evidence and make representations; and
(b)

to cross-examine witnesses to the extent necessary to ensure fair hearing.
(8)

The Committee may, at the request of any party and upon payment of charges, provide visual demonstration facilities for the display of any maps, charts, diagrams, illustrations or texts and documents, which that party intends to exhibit during the hearing.
(9)

If a person appearing at the inquiry or hearing, without reasonable excuse—

(a)

refuses or fails to take the oath or affirmation;
(b)

refuses or fails to answer a question that he or she is required, by the chairperson of the Committee, to answer; or
(c)

refuses or fails to produce a document that he or she was required to produce by a summons served, on him or her, the Committee may make such directions as it may consider necessary and appropriate under the circumstances of the case.
25.
Hearing and determination of matters in the absence of parties
(1)

Where a party fails to attend or be represented at a hearing of which he has been duly notified, the Committee may—

(a)

unless it is satisfied that there is sufficient reason for the absence of the party, hear and determine the application or matter before it in the absence of that party; or
(b)

adjourn the hearing, and may make such orders as to costs as it considers fit.
(2)

Before determining an application or matter under sub-rule (1)(a), the Committee shall consider any representations submitted by that party, in writing, in response to the hearing notice for the matter or an application.
(3)

Where a person against whom a complaint has been made fails to appear either personally or by his or her representative at the time and place fixed in the notice of hearing served on upon the medical practitioner or dentist without reasonable excuse —

(a)

the inquiry may proceed in his or her absence; and
(b)

the person commits an act of professional misconduct or offence under the Act.
26.
Consolidation of proceedings

The Committee may, upon giving the parties concerned an opportunity to be heard, order the consolidation of any proceedings before it where complaints have been filed in respect of the same matter or in respect of several interests in the same subject of complaint.
27.
Exclusion of persons disrupting the proceedings

Without prejudice to any other powers it may have, the Committee may exclude from the hearing or part of it, any person whose conduct has disrupted or is likely, in the opinion of the Committee, to disrupt the hearing.
28.
Adjournment of proceedings
(1)

The Committee may of its own motion, or upon the application of any party, adjourn the inquiry or hearing upon such terms as it thinks fit.
(2)

Notice of an adjournment of the inquiry shall be given to the persons involved in the proceedings in writing by the Committee.
29.
Evidence
(1)

For the purpose of these Rules, the Committee may receive oral, documentary or other evidence of any fact or matter which appears to it to be relevant to the inquiry into any matter before it.
(2)

The Committee may, if satisfied that the interests of justice will not be prejudiced, admit in evidence without strict proof, copies of documents which are themselves admissible, maps, plans, recorded tapes, photographs, certificates of conviction and sentence, certificates of birth and marriage and death, the records including records of the Ministry of Health and other Government Ministries, records of private practitioners, health institutions and any other relevant sources, the notes and minutes of proceedings before the Council and before other tribunals and courts.
(3)

The Committee may take note without strict proof thereof of the professional qualifications, the address and the identity of the medical practitioner or dentist or community oral health practitioner.
(4)

The Committee may accept and act on admissions made by any party and may in such cases dispense with proof of the matters admitted.
30.
Information

The Committee may receive or obtain information from such other persons who possess knowledge, information or experience in matters relating to the complaint before it as it may consider necessary for the purposes of determining an inquiry.
31.
Amendment of pleadings

The Committee may allow any amendments to the statements of complaint or response at any stage of the proceedings, provided that such amendment shall be for the interest of justice and is aimed at aiding the determination of the proceedings upon fair notice to the other party.
32.
Extension of time

The Committee may extend the time for doing anything under this Part on such terms as the Committee thinks fit.
33.
Judicial notice
(1)

The Committee may take judicial notice of—

(a)

facts that are publicly known; and
(b)

generally recognized facts and any information, policy or rule that is within its specialized knowledge.
(2)

Before the Committee takes notice of any fact, information, opinion, policy or unwritten rule under subrule (1), it shall notify the parties of its intention and afford them a reasonable opportunity to make representations with respect thereto.
PART V – DECISIONS OF THE COMMITTEE
34.
Decisions of the Committee
(1)

After the hearing the complaint, the Committee may—

(a)

dismiss the complaint;
(b)

if the person is found guilty the Committee may order one or more of the sanctions specified under section 20 of the Act; or
(c)

recommend to the Director of Public Prosecutions to initiate criminal proceedings against the person found guilty where necessary;
(d)

make such order as the Committee considers fit; or
(e)

make such recommendations to the Council as the Committee considers fit.
(2)

The decision of the Committee shall as far as possible be by consensus.
(3)

The decision of the Committee may be given orally at the end of the hearing or may be reserved and shall—

(a)

be reduced to writing whether there has been a hearing or not; and
(b)

shall be signed and dated by the chairperson.
(4)

A dissenting opinion may be pronounced separately by the member who wrote it and shall be dated and signed by that member.
(5)

Except where a decision is announced at the end of the hearing, it shall be treated as having been made on the date on which a copy of the document recording it is sent to the applicant.
(6)

Every order or determination of the Committee shall be made under the hand of chairperson or in his or her absence by the person chairing the meeting at which the order or determination is made.
(7)

Every order or determination of the Committee bearing the signature of the person chairing shall be prima facie evidence that the order or determination is that of the Committee.
35.
Reasons of decisions

The Committee shall give reasons for reaching its decision, and each decision shall include—

(a)

a statement of the findings of fact made from the evidence adduced, including, where applicable, any relevant government policy, international best practice or published scientific research; and
(b)

a statement of the laws and rules of law applied, and the interpretation thereof.
36.
Taking proceedings

Any party to the proceedings shall, on application and upon payment of the prescribed fee, be furnished with a certified copy of the proceedings or determination or finding of the Council or other documents.
37.
Review

A person dissatisfied with the decision of the Committee, which no appeal has been preferred, and who from the discovery of new and important matter or evidence which after the exercise of due diligence was not within the knowledge of that person or could not be produced by the time the decision was made, or on account of an error apparent on the face of the record, or for any other sufficient reason desires a review may apply to the Council for review, without unreasonable delay.
38.
Appeal

A person aggrieved by a decision of the Committee may appeal to the High Court as provided under section 20(9) of the Act.
39.
Application for restoration to the register
(1)

An application for restoration of the name of a person or the restoration of a license after removal or cancellation pursuant to sections 20 of the Act shall be in the prescribed form and accompanied by the prescribed fee.
(2)

All applications for restoration of the name on the register shall be accompanied by a certificate of identity and good character and signed by a medical practitioner or dentist or community oral health officer, as the case may be, of at least ten years’ standing.
(3)

A person making an application under subrule (1) shall give the names of three referees, two of whom shall be medical practitioners or dentists of consultant status or of at least ten years’ experience or a senior community oral health officer of at least ten years’ experience and of good repute and standing and one of whom shall be a non- medical person of good repute and social status, to whom the Council can send a request for information about the character, habits and conduct of the applicant during the period of suspension.
(4)

At the hearing of the application the following procedure shall be followed—

(a)

the Registrar shall state to the Council the circumstances in which the applicant’s name was removed or erased from the register or the license cancelled and shall adduce evidence as to the conduct of the medical practitioner or dentist or community oral health officer since that time;
(b)

the chairperson shall then invite the applicant to address the Council if he so wishes, and adduce evidence as to his conduct since his name was erased from the register or the license was cancelled;
(c)

the Council may, if it thinks fit, receive oral or written observation on the applicant from anybody or person whose complaint resulted in the applicant’s name being erased from the register or license being cancelled.
(5)

At the close of the proceedings under this rule the Council shall record and the Chair shall pronounce the finding or determination of the Council.
(6)

Subject to the provision of this rule, the proceedings of the Council in connection with applications for restoration of the name of a medical practitioner or dentist or community oral health officer on the register or restoration of a licence after cancellation, as the case may be, shall be such as the Council may determine.
40.
Revocation LN 157 of 1979

The Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Disciplinary Proceedings) (Procedure) Rules, 1979 (L.N. 157/1979) are revoked.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (INSPECTIONS AND LICENSING) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation

PART II – INSPECTIONS, LICENSING, FINANCE AND GENERAL PURPOSES COMMITTEE

3.

Committee
4.

The Committee shall— Functions of the Committee.

PART III – LICENSING

5.

Licences
6.

Forms
7.

Fees
8.

Internship licence
9.

Temporary licences
10.

Medical practitioners and dentists licence
11.

Licensing of registrars
12.

Temporary foreign medical and dental registrar licence
13.

Specialist licence
14.

Temporary foreign medical and dental specialist licence
15.

Community oral health officer licence
16.

Health institution licence
17.

Medical camp licence
18.

Non-clinical licences
19.

Additional information
20.

Conditions in licences
21.

Rejection of application
22.

Renewal of a licence
23.

Refusal to renew, or suspend, withdraw or cancel any practising licence

PART IV – INSPECTIONS

24.

Inspection of health institutions
25.

Appointment of inspectors
26.

Powers of inspectors
27.

Conduct of inspections
28.

Responsibilities of owners, etc., health institutions
29.

Practice within scope

PART V – MISCELLANEOUS

30.

Practice outside jurisdiction
31.

Objections against practitioners
32.

Offences
33.

Legal proceedings
34.

Mode of service
35.

Revocation

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (INSPECTIONS AND LICENSING) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Inspections and Licensing) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Committee" means the Inspections, Licensing, Finance and General Purposes Committee constituted in accordance section 4A of the Act;

"inspector" means an officer who is authorized to inspect health institutions licensed under the Act;

"internship training institution" means a facility that the Council has recognized and approved for purposes of internship-training including level 5 and level 6 private and public hospitals;

"medical director" means the healthcare professional who is in charge of clinical care in the health institution;

"registrar" means a registered medical or dental practitioner undertaking post graduate training;

"senior registrar" means a registered medical or dental practitioner who has completed post graduate training and is undertaking two years supervised practice.
PART II – INSPECTIONS, LICENSING, FINANCE AND GENERAL PURPOSES COMMITTEE
3.
Committee
(1)

Pursuant to section 4A(1)(c), the Council shall constitute the Inspections, Licensing, Finance And General Purposes Committee consisting of—

(a)

the Chairperson who shall be a member of the Council who is a registered medical or dental practitioner;
(b)

two members of the Council; and
(c)

two other persons who have the knowledge and skills co- opted to the Committee by the Council.
(2)

The quorum at meetings of the Committee shall be a simple majority.
(3)

The chairperson of the Committee shall preside over all meetings of the Committee and in the absence of the chairperson, the members of the Council present at the meeting shall elect one of their number to chair the meeting.
(4)

A person co-opted under paragraph (1)(b) shall attend the meetings of the Committee and participate in its deliberations.
(5)

The decisions of the Committee shall be by consensus.
(6)

The Committee shall present its decisions to the Council for approval and ratification.
(7)

Subject to these Rules, the Committee may regulate its own procedure.
4.
The Committee shall— Functions of the Committee.
(a)

inspect all health institutions registered under the Act and give such recommendations as may be appropriate;
(b)

undertake inspections of health institutions registered under the Act;
(c)

make recommendations for renewal of licences for health institutions;
(d)

make recommendations to the Council on budgets and procurement plans; and
(e)

undertake any other activity that may be necessary for the fulfillment of its functions under the Act and these Rules.
PART III – LICENSING
5.
Licences

Pursuant to sections 12, 13 and 15 of the Act, Council shall issue the following licences—

(a)

medical and dental practitioners internship licence;
(b)

community oral health officer internship licence;
(c)

medical and dental practitioners general practice licence;
(d)

community oral health officer practice licence;
(e)

medical and dental practitioners registrar licence;
(f)

medical and dental practitioners senior registrar licence;
(g)

medical and dental practitioners specialist practice licence;
(h)

temporary foreign medical and dental student licence;
(i)

temporary foreign medical and dental general practitioners licence;
(j)

temporary foreign medical and dental registrar licence;
(k)

temporary foreign medical and dental senior registrar licence;
(l)

temporary foreign medical and dental specialist licence;
(m)

health institution licence; and
(n)

medical camp licence.
6.
Forms

A person or an institution shall apply to the Council for a registration or licence in the prescribed under the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules (sub. leg).
7.
Fees
(1)

The fees payable in all matters connected with these Rules wherever applicable shall be those prescribed under the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Forms and Fees) Rules.
(2)

The Council shall not approve an application for a licence or temporary registration under these Rules before the prescribed fees is paid.
8.
Internship licence
(1)

A medical or dental graduate, or community oral health graduate who intends to undertake internship training shall make apply to the Council for an internship licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

in the case of a medical or dental graduate—

(i) a national identity card or passport;
(ii) certified copy of Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education certificate or its equivalent;
(iii) certified copy of degree or letter of completion from the training institution;
(iv) copy of Council internship qualifying examination certificate;
(v) copy of posting letter from the Ministry of Health or offer letter from other internship training institutions;
(vi) evidence of signed Hippocratic or Physician oath; and
(vii) a current passport size photograph.
(b)

in the case of a community oral health graduate—

(i) a national identity card or passport;
(ii) certified copy of Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education certificate or its equivalent;
(iii) letter of completion from the training institution;
(iv) certified copy of Diploma or Degree certificate from a recognized institution;
(v) copy of posting letter from the Ministry of Health or other internship training institutions;
(vi) signed copy of oath; and
(vii) a current passport size photograph.
(3)

The Council shall issue an internship licence to an applicant who meets the requirements set by the Council.
9.
Temporary licences
(1)

A foreign medical or dental student who wishes to perform specific work or works in specific institutions in Kenya shall apply to the Council for a temporary licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by-

(a)

certified copy of passport;
(b)

proof of registration as a medical or dental student;
(c)

a letter from the foreign medical school or dental school confirming that the applicant is a student;
(d)

an admission letter from the receiving institution;
(e)

proof of indemnity cover for the students; and
(f)

a current passport size photograph.
(3)

The Council shall issue an internship licence to an applicant who meets the requirements set by the Council.
10.
Medical practitioners and dentists licence
(1)

A medical or dental practitioner who intends to engage in general practice in the country shall apply to the Council for a licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous development points; and
(b)

proof that the practitioner has professional indemnity.
(3)

The Council shall issue a general practice licence to a medical or dental practitioner who satisfies the Council that they have attained fifty continuous development points and have in their possession a professional indemnity.
11.
Licensing of registrars
(1)

A medical or dental practitioner, undergoing a post graduate training programme shall apply to the Council for a medical and dental practitioner registrar licence or a medical and dental practitioners senior registrar licence, respectively.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

in the case of an application for a medical and dental practitioners registrar licence—

(i) copy of admission letter into post graduate training programme;
(ii) letter from the training institution indicating the programme in which they are registered and the status of the registrar; and
(iii) proof of professional indemnity cover.
(b)

in the case of an application for a medical and dental practitioners senior registrar licence—

(i) certified copy of degree certificate or its equivalent or letter of completion from the training institution;
(ii) letter from the supervisor;
(iii) proof of professional indemnity cover; and
(iv) proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous professional development points.
(3)

Notwithstanding subrule (2) medical practitioner who is making an application for a medical and dental practitioners senior registrar licence for the first time shall not be required to have attained continuous professional development points.
(4)

A registrar who does not intend to proceed as a senior registrar after completing post graduate training the registrar may upon application be licensed as a general practitioner.
12.
Temporary foreign medical and dental registrar licence
(1)

A foreign medical or dental practitioner, undergoing a post graduate training programme shall apply to the Council for a temporary foreign medical and dental practitioner registrar licence or a temporary foreign medical and dental practitioner senior registrar licence, respectively.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

in the case of an application for a temporary foreign medical and dental practitioner registrar licence—

(i) certified copy of passport;
(ii) copy of registration certificate from the Council;
(iii) copy of admission letter into post graduate training programme;
(iv) letter from the training institution indicating the programme in which they are registered and the status of the registrar; and
(v) proof of professional indemnity cover.
(b)

in the case of an application for a medical and dental practitioners senior registrar licence—

(i) certified copy of passport;
(ii) copy of registration certificate from the Council;
(iii) certified copy of degree certificate or its equivalent or letter of completion from the training institution;
(iv) letter from the supervisor;
(v) proof of professional indemnity cover; and
(vi) proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous professional development points.
(3)

A temporary foreign medical and dental practitioner registrar who does not intend to proceed as a senior registrar after completing post graduate training the registrar may upon application be licensed as a general practitioner.
13.
Specialist licence
(1)

A medical or dental practitioner recognized as a specialist under section 11B of the Act who intends to practice in the country shall apply to the Council for a specialist licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous professional development points; and
(b)

proof that the specialist has a professional indemnity.
14.
Temporary foreign medical and dental specialist licence
(1)

A foreign medical or dental practitioner recognized as a specialist under section 11B of the Act who intends to practice in the country shall apply to the Council for a temporary foreign medical and dental specialist licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of passport;
(b)

letter of offer from employing institution;
(c)

proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous professional development points; and
(d)

proof that the specialist has a professional indemnity.
15.
Community oral health officer licence
(1)

A person who intends to practice as a community oral health officer shall apply to the Council for a community oral health officer practice licence.
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

proof that the applicant has attained fifty continuous professional development points; and
(b)

proof that the community oral health officer has a professional indemnity cover.
16.
Health institution licence
(1)

A person who intends to operate a health institution shall apply to the Council for a health institution licence−
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

proof of the institution indemnity cover;
(b)

current list and licensure of health professionals;
(c)

name of medical director; and
(d)

evidence of a submitted inspections checklist.
17.
Medical camp licence
(1)

A person or an organization who intends to hold a medical camp shall upon application submit the following to be eligible for a licence—
(2)

An application under subrule (1) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

name of medical director of the medical camp;
(b)

list and licensure of all health professionals ; and
(c)

a follow up plan for patients served.
18.
Non-clinical licences
(1)

The Council may issue non-clinical licences to applicants who are eligible and have met requirements set out in their respective categories.
(2)

An applicant for a non-clinical licence shall not be required to produce proof of continuous professional development points and proof of professional indemnity.
19.
Additional information

The Council may, at any time, before issuing a licence request from an applicant such additional information as may be necessary for the determination of an application for a licence under these Rules.
20.
Conditions in licences
(1)

The Council may issue any licence subject to such conditions as the Council may consider necessary.
(2)

A health institution licence issued under rule 15 shall be only in respect of the premises named therein and shall not apply to any other premises.
(3)

A licensee who fails to display a licence in a conspicuous place at the premises and any licensee who fails to do so shall be guilty of an offence.
21.
Rejection of application

The Council shall reject the application of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of the Act and inform the applicant in writing stating the reasons for the rejection.
22.
Renewal of a licence
(1)

An application for renewal of a licence by—

(a)

a general medical or dental practitioner under section 14(1) of the Act shall be made at least thirty days before the date of expiry of the licence;
(b)

a health institutions under section 15(5) of the Act;
(c)

a recognized specialist shall be made at least thirty days before the date of expiry of the licence.
(2)

The Council may, on application—

(a)

for renewal of a licence; or
(b)

upgrading of a health institution, request for such additional information as may be relevant from an applicant as the Council considers necessary.
(3)

A person who includes, or causes to be included, in the application, or in response to a request for additional information by the Council, information which that person knows or has cause to believe is incorrect, commits an offence.
23.
Refusal to renew, or suspend, withdraw or cancel any practising licence
(1)

Pursuant to section 14 of the Act, the Council may refuse to renew, or suspend, withdraw or cancel any practising licence, if satisfied that any person under the Act is guilty of professional misconduct or is in breach of any provisions of this Act or any regulations made thereunder, within a period of twelve months immediately preceding the date of the application for renewal.
(2)

The Council shall, before refusing to grant or renew, or suspend, withdraw or cancel a licence, give to the applicant or licensee not less than twenty-eight days’ notice in writing stating its intention to so act.
(3)

The notice under subrule (2) shall inform the applicant or licensee of their right to be heard and request the applicant or licensee to confirm the Council in writing whether applicant or licensee wishes to be heard on the question of the proposed refusal or cancellation within twenty-one days of receipt of the notice.
(4)

Where the applicant or licensee informs the Council in writing under subrule (3) that he or she wishes to be heard, the Council shall give the applicant or licensee an opportunity to show cause why the Council should not refuse to renew, or suspend, withdraw or cancel the licence.
(5)

Where the Council after hearing the applicant or licensee refuses to grant or renew a licence, or suspends, withdraws or cancels a licence, the Council shall inform the applicant or licensee of its decision, in writing, within fourteen days of the decision stating the reasons for the decision.
(6)

An appeal to the High Court under section 14 (4) of the Act against the decision of the Council under this rule shall be made within thirty days of the receipt of the decision.
PART IV – INSPECTIONS
24.
Inspection of health institutions
(1)

Pursuant to section 15(10) of the Act, the Council shall inspect all health institutions registered and licensed under the Act.
(2)

The Council shall after an inspection, grade a health institution on the basis of criteria determined by the Council from time to time.
(3)

The medical director of a health institution shall provide evidence of engagement of all health professionals practicing in the health institution during an inspection.
(4)

The Council shall, in the event that the licence of a health institution is suspended, withdrawn or cancelled a health institution for failing to meet the licensing criteria determined by the Council, and display a notice in a conspicuous place at the entrance, for public information.
(5)

A person who interferes or tampers with the notice displayed under subsection (4) commits an offence and upon conviction liable to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand or imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or both.
25.
Appointment of inspectors
(1)

The Council shall appoint inspectors for the purposes of verifying compliance with the provisions of the Act and Regulations.
(2)

The Council shall issue all inspectors appointed under these Rules with identity cards which shall be produced by the inspectors at the request of any person in charge of any place that is to be inspected.
26.
Powers of inspectors

The inspectors shall have the following powers—

(a)

power to enter any premises where a medical and dental practitioner practices or is registered as a health institution;
(b)

power to order production of documents;
(c)

power to take possession of documents, take measurements, photographs and samples; and
(d)

power to issue sanctions or order closure of noncompliant facility.
27.
Conduct of inspections
(1)

The inspectors shall at all times during inspections clearly identify themselves to the person in charge, by presenting the notice of inspection, identification card and an entry and search warrant issued, where applicable.
(2)

The health institutions shall, during the inspection, facilitate access, make available the necessary staff, resources to allow inspectors to complete the inspection in a timely, orderly and expeditious manner.
(3)

An inspector may question any user, occupant, health care personnel or any other person on the premises of a health institution about any information that is relevant to the inspection, or require the person in charge to produce any document, record or material for inspection.
(4)

The person in charge may provide the inspectors with any relevant information, documents, records, objects or materials for the inspector's consideration during the inspection.
28.
Responsibilities of owners, etc., health institutions
(1)

The proprietor and the medical director of a health institution shall acquaint themselves fully with—

(a)

the qualifications;
(b)

licensing requirements; and
(c)

the professional conduct standards, of all health professionals working at the health institution and shall consult the Council or relevant professional body in case of any doubt.
(2)

The proprietor and the medical director of health institution, as well as the medical or dental practitioners concerned, shall be held responsible for any instance of professional negligence occurring within the premises about which they know or ought reasonably to have known.
29.
Practice within scope

The medical director of a health institution shall ensure that no medical or dental practitioners working in the health institution engages in practice outside the area of the scope of practice for which they have been licensed.
PART V – MISCELLANEOUS
30.
Practice outside jurisdiction
(1)

Any practitioner registered under the Act who moves to practice outside the country shall notify the Council.
(2)

The Council shall maintain a register of medical and dental practitioners practicing outside the country.
(3)

Upon return to the country a medical or dental practitioner who had been practicing outside the country may apply for a licence in the prescribed form.
(4)

The Council may exempt a medical or dental practitioner from the payment of annual fees for the period the practitioner was practicing outside the country upon being provided with proof of practice for the duration the practitioner was outside the country.
(5)

Where a medical or dental practitioner has been out of practice for a period of more than five years, the Council shall consider an application from a practitioner who has and make appropriate recommendations.
31.
Objections against practitioners

The Council may consider any objection on licensure raised against a practitioner by a professional association or any other person and determine it in such manner as it deems fit.
32.
Offences

Any person who hinders or obstructs an authorized officer of the Council from carrying out inspections commits an offence.
33.
Legal proceedings

The Council may, whether or not proceedings are brought against any person for an offence under these rules, where it is satisfied that there has been a contravention of any of these rules or of the conditions of any licence granted thereunder, and notwithstanding that such contravention is not an offence, cancel or refuse to renew any licence granted thereunder.
34.
Mode of service

Wherever under these rules, notice is to be served on an applicant or information is to be supplied to him, the notice or letter containing the information shall be sent to him either by registered post or by hand delivery, or any other means as approved by the Council.
35.
Revocation

The Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Inspections and Licensing) Rules (L.N. 154/2014) are revoked.
THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MENTAL HEALTH TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION INSTITUTIONS) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

PART I – PRELIMINARY

1.

Citation
2.

Application
3.

Interpretation

PART II – REGISTRATION AND LICENSING

4.

Registration
5.

Application for registration
6.

Application for licence
7.

Failure to submit documents or information
8.

Inspection Committee
9.

Pre-registration and routine inspections
10.

Grant of licence
11.

Conditions of licence
12.

Validity of licence
13.

Renewal of licence
14.

Change of particulars
15.

Refusal to renew licence
16.

Appeals to Court
17.

Revocation of licence
18.

Display of licence

PART III – STANDARDS

19.

Standards or code of practice
20.

Compliance with standards

PART IV – ENFORCEMENT

21.

Authorized officers
22.

Inspections and investigations
23.

Handling of complaints
24.

Offences
25.

Reports

SCHEDULES

SCHEDULE [r. 10(3)]

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (MENTAL HEALTH TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION INSTITUTIONS) RULES
PART I – PRELIMINARY
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Mental Health Treatment and Rehabilitation Institutions) Rules.
2.
Application

These Rules shall apply to mental health and rehabilitation institutions.
3.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"access" means that the service or personnel is available or can be outsourced at a different facility to which linkage is provided and documentary evidence of this is available including memorandum of understanding or service contract;

"drug" as defined under the Pharmacy and Poisons Act (Cap. 244);

"halfway house" means a home where people recovering from mental health conditions including substance use and behavioral disorders can stay for a limited period of time with a view of transitioning to healthy living;

"harm reduction services" means a set of practical strategies that reduce negative consequences of drug use, incorporating a spectrum of strategies from safer use to managed use to abstinence;

"mental health" means a state of wellbeing in which the individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to his or her own community;

"mental illness" means a wide range of conditions that affect mood, thinking and behaviour;

"substance use disorder" means a maladaptive pattern of substance use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress;

"substance use disorder treatment" means a service or set of services that may include medication, counselling, and other supportive services designed to enable an individual to reduce or eliminate alcohol or other drug use, address associated physical or mental health problems, and restore the patient to maximum functional ability;

"support group" means a group of people with common experiences or concerns who provide each other with encouragement comfort or advice;

"rehabilitation" means a process of medical and non-medical therapeutic treatment of substance use and behavioural disorders, the general intent being to enable the client confront or manage substance use disorders alongside other co-occurring conditions or disorders to achieve their optimal level of functioning;

"treatment" means—

(a)

the provision of one or more structured interventions designed to manage health and other problems as a consequence of drug abuse and to improve or maximize personal and social functioning; or
(b)

the process that begins when a person with substance use disorder comes into contact with a health or any other community service provider including counselling and drug testing, and may continue through a succession of specific interventions until the highest attainable level of health and well-being is reached.
PART II – REGISTRATION AND LICENSING
4.
Registration

A person who intends to operate a mental health or rehabilitation institution shall be licensed by the Council in accordance with requirements prescribed under these Rules.
5.
Application for registration
(1)

A person who intends to register a mental health institution shall upon application to the Council in the prescribed form, submit the following requirements—

(a)

company or business certificate registration;
(b)

certified copies of professional certificate of healthcare personnel;
(c)

certified copies of valid practicing licenses of the healthcare personnel issued by the relevant regulatory body;
(d)

proof of payment of the prescribed fee; and
(e)

any other requirements the Council shall consider necessary.
(2)

An institution maybe registered as a mental health and rehabilitation institution where—

(a)

the institution conforms to the description, infrastructure and personnel criteria for the respective category and facility set out in the Schedule;
(b)

the Council has carried out a pre-registration inspection and the premises and facilities have been found to be satisfactory;
(c)

the healthcare personnel providing services at the institution are holders of valid practice licenses; and
(d)

the quality of care to be provided at the institution meets the minimum standards acceptable by the Council.
(3)

Where the applicant satisfies the Council that the institution meets the requirements for registration, the registrar shall register the institution as an approved mental health and rehabilitation institution.
(4)

The Council shall issue every approved mental health and rehabilitation institution registered under these Rules a certificate of registration in the prescribed form.
(5)

The Registrar shall keep a register of all mental health and rehabilitation institutions.
6.
Application for licence
(1)

A person who wishes to operate a mental health treatment or rehabilitation institution, shall apply to the Council for a licence.
(2)

An application for the grant or renewal of a licence to operate a facility shall be in the prescribed form.
(3)

Any application for a license under this rule shall be accompanied with the documents set out in rule 5(1).
7.
Failure to submit documents or information
(1)

Where an applicant fails to submit all documents or information required under these Rules, the Council shall reject the application and inform the applicant, in writing, of the rejection and the reason for the rejection.
(2)

Where the Council rejects an application due to incomplete or insufficient information, the rejection shall not, bar the applicant from resubmitting the application.
(3)

The Council shall consider the re-submitted application as a new application.
8.
Inspection Committee
(1)

The Council shall, within seven days after receipt of the application for registration, constitute an Inspection Committee comprising representatives of the relevant agencies to undertake an inspection of the proposed facility.
(2)

The Inspection Committee shall, when undertaking an inspection, ensure that the applicant meets all the requirements set out in the Schedule.
(3)

The Inspection Committee shall, prior to its sittings—

(a)

notify the Public Health Officer in charge of the County where the applicant’s facility is situated, in writing; and
(b)

invite the public to make any presentations on the suitability of the applicant or facility.
(4)

The Inspection Committee shall determine its own calendar and procedure for its proceedings.
9.
Pre-registration and routine inspections
(1)

The Council shall, within thirty days of receipt of the application under rule 5, inspect and assess the institution, make a determination and submit to the Council an Inspection Report with its findings.
(2)

The report under subrule (1) and criteria set out under these rules or any applicable written law and shall indicate whether—

(a)

the facility is suitable for the provision of services under these Rules;
(b)

the facility conforms to the prescribed occupational health and safety requirements;
(c)

the facility has the physical infrastructure, treatment and rehabilitation systems and equipment necessary to carry out the services; and
(d)

the facility has the sufficient number of competent staff for the provision of treatment and rehabilitation services and management as the Council may from time to time determine.
10.
Grant of licence
(1)

The Council shall, after considering the Inspection Report, make a determination on whether or not to grant the licence.
(2)

Where the Council has no objection to the application under rule 5, the Council shall grant a licence to the applicant upon payment of the prescribed fees.
(3)

The licence shall be in the prescribed form and subject to such conditions as the Council may consider necessary.
(4)

Where the Council is not satisfied with the application under subrule (1), the Council may—

(a)

reject the application and within twenty-one days of the decision notify the applicant of the rejection in writing stating the reasons for the rejection; or
(b)

within twenty-one days of the decision notify the applicant of the decision, in writing and return the application to the applicant with comments and recommendations.
(5)

The applicant to whom the application is returned under subrule (4)(b) may re-submit a revised application within three months of the date of notification.
(6)

Upon receipt of a revised application under subrule (5), the Council shall, within thirty days determine the application in accordance with this Act.
(7)

Where the Council grants a licence under these rules, it shall ensure that the information related to the license is accessible to the public and shall publish the grant of licence in its website.
11.
Conditions of licence
(1)

The Council may specify the terms and conditions of a licence consistent with the provisions of the Act, Rules and other relevant circumstances.
(2)

A licensee shall comply with all terms and conditions of the licence.
(3)

The Council shall issue licences in accordance with the categories and levels of care as prescribed in the Schedule.
12.
Validity of licence
(1)

The licences which may be granted under these Rules shall be those specified in the Schedule, and the provisions of that Schedule shall have effect in relation to the respective licences therein specified.
(2)

A licence shall not be granted to apply to more than one facility at a time.
13.
Renewal of licence
(1)

Every licence and every renewal, or revocation thereof shall be sufficiently authenticated by the Council.
(2)

Every grant of a licence and every renewal shall—

(a)

be subject to the payment of the fee as stipulated in Schedule; and
(b)

expire on the 31st day of December each year.
(3)

Where an application for the renewal of a licence has been made and the Council has not by the date of expiration of the licence reached a decision thereon, such licence shall remain in force until the decision of the Council is made known:

Provided that a licensee shall apply for renewal of a licence at least three months before the day of the expiry of the licence.
14.
Change of particulars

A licensee shall—

(a)

notify the Council of its intention to change the name or contact address it filed with the Council at least thirty days before effecting such change; and
(b)

notify the Council and the public of any trade or brand name it intends to use at least thirty days prior to using the trade or brand name.
15.
Refusal to renew licence

The Council may refuse to renew a license if the licensee—

(a)

has breached any of the conditions of the licence;
(b)

has failed to comply with the standards and code of practice specified;
(c)

being a professional regulated under any written law, has ceased being in good standing with the relevant professional body;
(d)

has failed to maintain or operate the facility in accordance with these Rules or any written laws.
16.
Appeals to Court

An applicant whose application for a new license or, renewal of a license has been refused may within twenty-one days appeal against such refusal to the High Court.
17.
Revocation of licence
(1)

The Council may revoke a licence in accordance with these Rules.
(2)

The Council may revoke the licence after conducting its own inspection of the facility or after considering the inspection report of the Inspection Committee.
(3)

The Council may revoke a Practitioner’s Licence upon an inquiry into the conduct of the holder of a Practitioner’s Licence.
(4)

Upon considering the report, the Council shall issue a written notice to the licensee, a copy of the inspection report and the reasons for the intended revocation and an invitation of the licensee to appear before the Council at least, twenty-one days before the date of the hearing.
(5)

A licensee concerning whom the report is to be considered may appear in person or by an advocate before the Council.
(6)

The Council, having duly considered the report and having heard the licensee, if he appears, may, if it thinks fit, revoke the licence of the licensee reported upon, or it may make such an order in respect of such licence or the licensed facility specified therein as, in the opinion of the Council, is necessary.
(7)

A person aggrieved by the decision of the Council upon any such report may within twenty-one days appeal against the decision to the High Court.
18.
Display of licence
(1)

Every licence shall be prominently and conspicuously displayed on the facility to which it relates, and any licensee who fails or neglects so to display his license commits an offence.
(2)

A person causing or permitting to be on his premises or on the premises under his control any words, letters or sign falsely purporting that he is a licensee commits an offence.
PART III – STANDARDS
19.
Standards or code of practice
(1)

The Council shall publish the standards for facilities and the code of practice for providing treatment and rehabilitation services under the Act and these Rules.
(2)

The standards and code of practice published under subrule(1) shall conform to standards, guidelines and protocols set by the Ministry of Health, Kenya Board of Mental Health, World Health Organization or any other internationally recognized evidence-based treatment and practices applicable in the field of rehabilitation of persons with substance use and behavioural disorders.
(3)

The standards for the facility published under subrule (1) shall include, among others—

(a)

compliance with t
(b)

he building code;
(c)

essential or mandatory physical infrastructure;
(d)

necessary equipment; and
(e)

occupational health and safety rules;
(4)

The code of practice for providing treatment and rehabilitation services published under subrule (1) shall include, among others,—

(a)

rights and responsibilities of persons receiving services;
(b)

levels and processes of service delivery and interventions;
(c)

management systems for the facility including personnel;
(d)

core professional practice requirements within the facility; and
(e)

ethical practice requirements for service delivery.
20.
Compliance with standards
(1)

A licensee shall ensure that—

(a)

the facility is operated, maintained or managed in accordance with the standards and conditions prescribed under these Rules; and
(b)

code of practice is complied with by any person involved in the provision of service under these Rules.
(2)

A person who contravenes this rule commits an offence and shall be liable to a fine not exceeding five hundred thousand shillings or to a term of imprisonment not exceeding two years or both.
PART IV – ENFORCEMENT
21.
Authorized officers
(1)

The Council shall designate such number of authorized officers to carry out inspections or seek compliance with these Rules.
(2)

The powers and procedures to be followed by an authorized officer shall be as provided for under the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Inspections and Licensing) Rules, 2022.
22.
Inspections and investigations

The Council shall inspect or investigate matters relating to the quality of services, of a licensee from time to time to ensure compliance; or carry out any visits or inspections pursuant to the provisions of the Act.
23.
Handling of complaints
(1)

The Council shall investigate complaints received relating to Mental and Alcohol and Drug Abuse Treatment and Rehabilitation Facilities and prepare reports on the findings.
(2)

The Council shall take such measure as will be necessary to ensure that the complaint is efficiently and effectively resolved and where applicable, shall refer the matter to other relevant Authorities for investigation and action.
24.
Offences

A person who—

(a)

operates a facility without a valid licence; or
(b)

allows and unqualified and unlicensed professional to work at a facility, commits an offence.
25.
Reports
(1)

A licensee shall submit quarterly reports to the Council in a prescribed form.
(2)

The Report submitted under subrules (1) shall contain all such information as may be prescribed in a Schedule to these Rules.

SCHEDULE

[r. 10(3)]

LEVEL 1

Facility type and description

Core services

Infrastructure Equipment

Core personnel

Community-based services(provides outreach and early intervention services)

(i) Community sensitisation, education and mobilisation(ii) Health promotion(iii) Early identification of substance abusers(iv) Harm reduction services(v) Information on mental health services(vi) Support groups(vii) Individual and group counselling(viii) Family education and therapy(ix) Life and social skills training(x) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle(xi) Brief intervention(xii) Linkage to SUD treatment and rehabilitation services(xiii) Linkage to comprehensive treatment services

(i) IEC materials(ii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iii) Consultation rooms(iv) Counselling rooms(v) Meeting rooms(vi) Health records and information management system(vii) IPC and WASH requirements(viii) Security and safety measures(ix) Recreational facilities(x) Access to ambulance for referrals

(i) CHVs/ CHEWs(ii) Peer educators(iii) Community health nurse(iv) Mental health nurse(v) HPOs(vi) Addiction counsellors(vii) Psychologists(viii) Nutritionist(ix) Social workers (x) Case workers(xi) Trainers(xii) Volunteers(xiii) Support staff(xiv) Community leaders

LEVEL 2

Facility type and description

Core services

Infastructure Equipment

Core personnel

i. Basic outpatient facility (provides low- to mid- intensity interventions – only day time)

(i) Basic screening for SUD and mental illness(ii) Initiation of and linkage to SUD and mental health treatment services(iii) Brief intervention(iv) Treatment planning(v) Outpatient meetings(vi) Addiction counselling(vii) Mental health counselling(viii) Support groups(ix) Individual and group counselling(x) Family education and therapy(xi) Harm reduction services(xii) Life and social skills training

(i) Screening tools e.g. Mental status exam, PHQ-9, CAGE, ASSIST, COWS, ASI, ASAM(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Emergency resuscitation kits(v) Consultation rooms(vi) Counselling rooms(vii) Meeting rooms(viii) Basic routine laboratory services(ix) Sample collection and referral(x) Dispensing pharmacy(xi) Health records and information management system(xii) IPC and WASH requirements(xiii) Security and safety measures

(i) Resident Mental health clinical officer(ii) Resident Mental health nurse(iii) Addiction counsellors(iv) Psychologists(v) Social workers(vi) Case workers(vii) HRIO(viii) HPO(ix) Access to Laboratorytechnologists(x) Access to Pharmaceuticaltechnologists(xi) Access to Occupational therapist(xii) Nutritionist(xiii) Peer educators

(xiii) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle

(xiv) Recreational facilities(xv) Utility vehicle(xvi) Access to ambulance for referrals

(xiv) Trainers(xv) Support staff including cleaners and security guards(xvi) Volunteers(xvii) Community leaders

ii. Drop-in centre(a)“collection point” or gateway to SUD treatment facilities–open 24 hours)

(i) Screening and basic assessment of SUD and mental illness(ii) Brief intervention(iii) Overnight stays(iv) Treatment planning(v) Individual and group counselling

(i) Screening tools e.g. Mental status exam, PHQ-9, CAGE, ASSIST, COWS(ii) IEC materials(iii)Consultation rooms(iv) Counselling rooms(v) Meeting rooms(vi) Emergency or observation room

(i) Resident Mental health clinical officer(ii) Resident Mental health nurse(iii) Psychiatrist on call(iv) Addiction counsellors(v) Psychologists(vi) Access to Social workers

(vi) Harm reduction services(vii) Life and social skills training(viii) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle(ix) Family education and therapy(x) Linkage and referral to comprehensive SUD treatment centres

(vii) Inpatient rooms or wards with a capacity of not more than eight beds(viii) Sample collection and referral(ix) Dispensing pharmacy(x) Health records and information management system(xi) IPC and WASH requirements(xii) Kitchen(xiii) Laundry(xiv) Security and safety measures(xv) Recreational facilities(xvi) Utility vehicle(xvii) Access to ambulance for referrals

(vii) Access to Laboratory technologists(viii) Access to Pharmaceutical technologists(ix) Access to Occupational therapist(x) Nutritionist(xi) HRIO(xii) Access to HPO(xiii) Peer educators(xiv) Volunteers(xv) Support staff(xvi) Community leaders

iii. Halfway house(recovery management and social support for clients who havebeen discharged from residential treatment and/or rescued f rom toxic home environments–open 24 hours)

(i) Basic screeningand assessment for SUD and mental illness(ii) Individual and group counselling(iii) Brief intervention(iv) Harm reduction services(v) Life and social skills training(vi) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle(vii) Relapse prevention strategies(viii) Family education and therapy(ix) Reintegration and linkage to social support services including:

(i) Screening tools e.g. Mental status exam, PHQ-9, CAGE, ASSIST, COWS(ii) IEC materials(iii) Resuscitation kits(iv) Residential hostel/ dormitory facilities for:(a) At least twelve (12) male(b) At least twelve (12) female(v) Vocational training rooms(vi) Consultation rooms(vii) Counselling rooms(viii) Meeting rooms(ix) At least two (2) observation or emergency rooms(x) Sample collection and referral(xi) Dispensing pharmacy(xii) Health records and information management system

(i) Access to Psychiatrist(ii) Resident mental health nurse or clinical officer(iii) KRCHNs(iv) Resident addiction counsellors(v) Resident psychologists(vi) Access to Social workers(vii) Case workers(viii) Access to Laboratory technologists(ix) Access to Pharmaceutical technologists(x) Access to Occupational therapists(xi) Access to Physiotherapist

(a) Family support(b) Vocational training(c) Income generating opportunities(d) Sporting activities(e) Housing(f) Legal(g) NCPWD(h) Law enforcement(x) Linkage and referral to treatment services(xi) Discharge planning

(xiii) IPC and WASH requirements(xiv) Kitchen(xv) Laundry(xvi) Security and safety measures(xvii) Library with books and computers and internet(xviii) Recreational facilities(xix) Sporting facilities(xx) Utility vehicles(xxi) Access to ambulance for referrals

(xii) Nutritionist(xiii) HRIO(xiv) HPO(xv) Peer educators(xvi) Volunteers(xvii) Support staff(xviii) Trainers(xix) Community leaders

LEVEL 3

Fa cilit y type and description

Co r e services

I n fr a str u ct u re / Equipment

Co r e personnel

3A: Comprehensiveoutpatient facility (mid-to high- intensity interventions–only day time)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Treatment planning(iii) Medication-assisted detoxification(iv) Maintenance medication(v) Behavioural and psychosocial treatment of addiction and psychiatric disorders(vi) Family education and therapy(vii) Harm reduction services(viii) Life and social skills training

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Observation or emergency room Procedure room(viii) Pharmacy(ix) Laboratory able to do routine tests and rapid drug tests, sample collection and referral for other tests

(i) Access to Psychiatrist(ii) Resident Medical Officer or Resident Mental health clinical officers(iii) Resident Mental health nurses(iv) Resident Psychologists(v) Resident Addiction counsellors(vi) Laboratory technologists(vii) Pharmaceutical technologist

(ix) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle (x) Linkage to residential and comprehensive treatment centres(xi) Discharge planning and linkage

(x) Health records and information management system(xi) IPC and WASH requirements(xii) Security and safety measures(xiii) Recreational facilities(xiv) Utility vehicles(xv) Ambulance for referrals

(viii) Access to Social workers(ix) Access to Occupational therapist(x) Access to Physiotherapists(xi) Nutritionists(xii) Case workers(xiii) Peer educators(xiv) Volunteers(xv) Trainers(xvi) HRIO(xvii) HPOs(xviii) Support staff

3B: Basic inpatient facility (Provides residential treatment that is both short-and long-term)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Individualized treatment planning(iii) Maintenance medication(iv) Behavioural and psychosocial management

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Procedure room(viii) Inpatient facilities for:(a) At least eight (8) male patients

(i) Access to Psychiatrist(ii) Access to Medical Officer(iii) Resident Mental health clinical officer(iv) Resident Psychologists/ Addiction counsellors(v) Resident Mental health nurses

(v) Continuous clinical assessment(vi) Engagement with patient’s family/social network to support recovery.(vii) Family education and therapy.(viii) Life and social skills training.(ix) Empowering individual to maintain healthy lifestyle.(x) Linkage to residential and comprehensive treatment centres(xi) Linkage to halfway and other recovery support programs.(xii) Linkage to management of co-morbid medical and/or psychiatric disorders.(xiii) Relapse prevention and management(xiv) Nutritional assessment and management(xv) Discharge planning and linkage

(b) At least eight (8) female patients(c) At least four (4) adolescents or children(ix) At least one observation room(x) Nursing station(xi) Basic pharmacy(xii) Side laboratory i.e. able to do routine rapid tests (dipstick) andrapid drug tests, and offer sample collection and referral for other tests(xiii) Health records and information management system(xiv) Linkage to imaging services(xv) Linkage to Electroencephalog raphy(xvi) Health records and information management system(xvii) IPC and WASH requirements(xviii) Kitchen(xix) Laundry(xx) Security and safety measures(xxi) Library with books, computers and internet access.(xxii) Recreational facilities(xxiii) Sporting facilities(xxiv) Utility vehicles(xxv) Ambulance for referrals

(vi) Access to Laboratory technologists(vii) Access to Pharmaceutical technologists(viii) Access to Social workers(ix) Access to Occupational therapist(x) Access to Physiotherapists(xi) Nutritionists ± Volunteers Support staff

LEVEL 4

Fa cilit y type and description

Co r e services

I n fr a str u ct u re / Equipment

Co r e personnel

Primarytreatment facility (provides comprehensive outpatient and basic/ short-term residential treatment–open 24 hours)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Individualised treatment planning(iii) Medication-assisted detoxification(iv) Initiation of maintenance medication(v) Behavioural and psychosocial treatment of addiction and psychiatric disorders including 12- step programmes

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Inpatient facilities for:(a) At least twelve (12) male patients(b) At least twelve (12) female patients(c) At least four (4) adolescents or children(viii) Emergency or observation rooms

(i) Visiting Psychiatrist(ii) Resident Medical Officer(iii) Resident Mental health clinical officer(iv) Resident psychologists and clinical psychologists(v) Resident Addiction counsellors(vi) Mental health nurses(vii) Laboratory technologists(viii) Pharmacist or Pharmaceutical technologists

(vi) Continuous clinical assessment(vii) Engagement with patient’s family/social network to support recovery(viii) Family education and therapy(ix) Harm reduction services(xiii) Linkage to management of co-morbidities(xiv) Discharge planning and linkage

(ix) ± Sensory deprivation rooms(x) Pharmacy(xi) Laboratory able to do routine tests and comprehensive drug tests(xii) Access to imaging services– x-ray, ultrasound(xiii) Access to electroencephalography(xiv) Health records and information management system(xv) IPC and WASH requirements(xvi) Kitchen(xvii) Laundry(xviii) Security and safety measures(xix) Library with books, computers and internet access(xx) Recreational facilities(xxi) Sporting facilities(xxii) Utility vehicles(xxiii) Ambulance for referrals

(ix) Social workers(x) Occupational therapist(xi) Physiotherapists(xii) Nutritionists(xiii) Case workers(xiv) Trainers(xv) Peer educators(xvi) Volunteers(xvii) HRIOs(xviii) HPOs(xix) Support staff

LEVEL 5

Fa cilit y type and description

Co r e services

I n fr a str u ct u re / Equipment

Co r e personnel

Secondary treatment facility (provides comprehensive outpatient and comprehensive residentialtreatment i.e. both short-and long-termresidential treatment –open 24 hours)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Individualised treatment planning(iii) Provide emergency resuscitation services and linkage to critical care(iv) Medical detoxification for management of withdrawal symptoms(v) Management of co-morbid medical and/or psychiatric disorders(vi) Maintenance treatment(vii) Prevention of relapse

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Inpatient facilities for:(a) At least twenty (20) male patients(b) At least twenty (20) female patients(c) At least twelve (12) adolescents or children(viii) At least eight emergency or observation rooms(ix) Access to HDU or ICU facilities(x) Pharmacy(xi) Laboratory able to do comprehensive tests and comprehensive drug tests(xii) Imaging – x-ray, ultrasound

(i) Resident Psychiatrist(ii) Resident Physician(iii) Other medical specialists and/or subspecialists available on call(iv) Medical officers(v) Pharmacists(vi) Resident Clinical psychologist(vii) Psychologists(viii) Resident Addiction counsellors(ix) Mental health clinical officers(x) Mental health nurses(xi) KRCHNs(xii) Laboratory technologists(xiii) Pharmaceutical technologists(xiv) Social workers(xv) Occupational therapist(xvi) Physiotherapists

(viii) Behavioural and psychosocial treatment of addiction and psychiatric disorders including brief intervention cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and 12-step programmes(ix) Continuous clinical assessment(x) Engagement with patient’s family/social network to support recovery including marital therapy(xi) Harm reduction services(xii) Linkage to tertiary residential treatment centres(xiii) Linkage to community mental health services(xiv) Discharge planning and linkage

(xiii) Access to CT, MRI, PET, etc(xiv) Electroencephalog raphy(xv) Health records and information management system(xvi) IPC and WASH requirements(xvii) Kitchen(xviii) Laundry(xix) Security and safety measures(xx) Library with books, computers and internet access(xxi) Recreational facilities(xxii) Sporting facilities(xxiii) Vocational training facilities(xxiv) Utility vehicles(xxv) Ambulance for referrals

(xvii) Nutritionists(xviii) Case workers(xix) Trainers(xx) Peer educators(xxi) Volunteers(xxii) HRIOs(xxiii) HPOs(xxiv) Support staff

LEVEL 6

Facility type and description

Core services

Infrastructu/reEquipment

Core personnel

6A: Tertiarytreatment facility (provides comprehensive outpatient and intensive residential treatment within Level 6 hospital –open 24 hours)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Individualised treatment planning(iii) Medical detoxification for management of withdrawal symptoms(iv) Management of intoxication and overdose including ICU care(v) Management of co-morbid medical and psychiatric disorders(vi) Maintenance treatment(vii) Relapse prevention strategies(viii) Behavioural and psychosocial treatment of addiction and psychiatric disorders including brief intervention, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and 12-step programmes

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Inpatient facilities for:(a) At least thirty- two (32) male patients(b) At least thirty- two (32) female(c) At least sixteen (16) adolescents or children(viii) At least twelve (12) observation or emergency rooms(ix) At least eight (8) isolation rooms(x) At least two (2) sensory deprivation rooms(xi) Sensory stimulation therapy(xii) Brain stimulation therapy e.g. ECT, TMS, VNS(xiii) ICU(xiv) HDU(xv) Pharmacy(xvi) Laboratory able to do comprehensive tests and comprehensive drug tests

(i) Resident Psychiatrists(ii) Resident Physicians(iii) Resident Neurologist(iv) Resident Anaesthesiolo gist or Critical care specialist(v) Resident medical specialists and sub-specialists(vi) Medical officers(vii) Pharmacists(viii) Resident Clinical psychologists(ix) Psychologists(x) Addiction counsellors(xi) Mental health clinical officers(xii) Mental health nurses(xiii) Critical care nurses(xiv) Laboratory technologists(xv) Pharmaceutical technologists(xvi) Social workers(xvii) Occupational therapist(xviii) Physiotherapists(xix) Nutritionists

(ix) Continuous clinical assessment(x) Engagement with patient’s family/social network to support recovery(xi) Family education and therapy(xii) Marital therapy(xiii) Harm reduction services(xiv) Life and social skills training(xv) Linkage to specialist treatment centres(xvi) Discharge planning(xvii) Linkage to community mental health services

(xvii) Imaging–x-ray, doppler ultrasound, CT, MRI, PET(xviii) Electroencephalog raphy(xix) IPC and WASH requirements(xx) Kitchen(xxi) Laundry(xxii) Security and safety measures(xxiii) Library with books, computers and internet access(xxiv) Recreational facilities(xxv) Sporting facilities(xxvi) Vocational training facilities(xxvii) Utility vehiclesxxviii) Ambulance for referrals

(xx) Case workers(xxi) Trainers(xxii) Peer educators(xxiii) Volunteers(xxiv) HPOs(xxv) HRIOs(xxvi) Support staff

6B: Specialist treatment centre (a stand-alone comprehensive outpatient and intensive residentialmental health and SUD treatment centre open 24 hours)

(i) Comprehensive biopsychosocial assessment(ii) Individualised treatment planning(iii) Medical detoxification for management of withdrawal symptoms(iv) Management of intoxication and overdose including ICU care(v) Management of co-morbid medical and psychiatric disorders(vi) Maintenance treatment(vii) Relapse prevention strategies(viii) Behavioural and psychosocial treatment of addiction and psychiatric disorders including brief intervention, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and 12-step programmes(ix) Continuous clinical assessment(x) Engagement with patient’s family/social network to support recovery(xi) Family education and therapy

(i) Screening tools(ii) IEC materials(iii) Emergency resuscitation kits(iv) Consultation rooms(v) Counselling rooms(vi) Meeting rooms(vii) Inpatient facilities for:(a) At least thirty-two (32) male patients(b) At least thirty-two (32) female(c) At least sixteen (16) adolescents or children(viii) At least twelve (12) observation or emergency rooms(ix) At least eight (8) isolation rooms(x) At least two (2) sensory deprivation rooms(xi) Sensory stimulation therapy(xii) Brain stimulation therapy e.g. ECT, TMS, VNS(xiii) ICU(xiv) HDU(xv) Pharmacy(xvi) Laboratory able to do comprehensive tests and comprehensive drug tests(xvii) Imaging– x-ray, doppler ultrasound, CT, MRI, PET

(i) Resident Psychiatrists(ii) Resident Physician(iii) Resident Anaesthesiologists or Critical care specialists(iv) Resident or visiting Neurologist(v) Other medical specialists and sub-specialists available on call(vi) Medical officers(vii) Pharmacists(viii) Resident Clinical psychologists(ix) Psychologists(x) Addiction counsellors(xi) Mental health clinical officers(xii) Mental health nurses(xiii) Critical care nurses(xiv) Laboratory technologists(xv) Pharmaceutica l technologists(xvi) Social workers(xvii) Occupational therapist(xviii) Physiotherapis ts(xix) Nutritionists

(xii) Marital therapy(xiii) Harm reduction services(xiv) Life and social skills training(xv) Discharge planning(xvi) Linkage to community mental health services

(xviii) Electroencephalography(xix) IPC and WASH requirements(xx) Kitchen(xxi) Laundry(xxii) Security and safety measures(xxiii) Library with books, computers and internet access(xxiv) Recreational facilities(xxv) Sporting facilities(xxvi) Vocational training facilities(xxvii) Utility vehiclesxxviii) Ambulance for referrals

(xx) Case workers(xxi) Trainers(xxii) Peer educators(xxiii) Volunteers(xxiv) HRIOs(xxv) HPOs(xxvi) PHOs(xxvii) Support staff

Abbreviations:

• CHV Community health volunteer

• CHEW Community health extension worker

• CT Computed tomography scan

• ECT Electroconvulsive therapy

• EEG Electroencephalography

• KRCHN Kenya Registered Community Health Nurse

• HDU High dependency unit

• HPO Health promotion officer

• HRIO Health records and information officer

• ICU Intensive care unit

• IEC Information, education and communication

• IPC Infection prevention and control

• MRI Magnetic resonance imaging

• NCPWD National Council for Persons with Disabilities

• PET Positron emission tomography

• PHO Public health officer

• SUD Substance use disorder

• TMS Transcranial magnetic stimulation

• VNS Vagus nerve stimulation

• WASH Water, sanitation and hygiene

Screening tools:

• ASSIST – Alcohol, Smoking and Substance Involvement Screening Tool–developed by the WHO

• CAGE Questionnaire – it has 4 questions to gauge a client’s alcohol use i.e. Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty and Eye-opener

• COWS – Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale – the examining clinician assesses the client on 11 items

• PHQ-9 – Patient Health Questionnaire – it has 9 questions to assess for depression.

Comprehensive package of HIV prevention, treatment and care interventions for people who inject drugs (PWID)

Core components recommended by WHO/UNODC/UNAIDS:

• Needle and syringe programme (NSP)

• Opioid substitution therapy (OST) and other evidence-­based treatment persons with opioid use disorder

• HIV testing and counselling

• Antiretroviral therapy (ART)

• Prevention and treatment of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

• Condom programmes for PWID and their sexual partners

• Targeted information, education and communication for PWID and their sexual partners

• Vaccination, diagnosis and treatment of viral hepatitis

• Prevention, diagnosis and treatment of tuberculosis (TB)

• Outreach services

• Overdose prevention and management

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (TRAINING, ASSESSMENT, AND REGISTRATION) RULES

ARRANGEMENT OF RULES

1.

Citation
2.

Interpretation

PART II – TRAINING

3.

The Committee
4.

Functions of the Committee
5.

Admission criteria for medicine and surgery and dental surgery
6.

Admission requirements for community oral health officers
7.

Record of students

PART III – ASSESSMENT

8.

Examination requirements
9.

Board of Examiners
10.

Conduct of examinations
11.

Repeat examinations
12.

Fees for examinations

PART IV – INTERNSHIP

13.

Internship
14.

Internship licence
15.

Internship period
16.

Oaths
17.

Supervision for interns
18.

Internship assessment
19.

Conditions for recognition of institutions
20.

Publication of list of recognized institutions
21.

Observance of Council guidelines
22.

Withdrawal of approval

PART VIII – REGISTRATION

23.

Application for registration
24.

Additional qualifications
25.

Specialist and subspecialist recognition
26.

Registers

PART IX – CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT

27.

Conduct of continuing professional development programmes
28.

Award of points and certificates
29.

Register of accredited providers
30.

Requirement for continuing educational Programmes
31.

Application for accreditation
32.

Proof of compliance
33.

Revocation L.N. 37/2014

THE MEDICAL PRACTITIONERS AND DENTISTS (TRAINING, ASSESSMENT, AND REGISTRATION) RULES
1.
Citation

These Rules may be cited as the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Training, Assessment, and Registration) Rules.
2.
Interpretation

In these Rules, unless the context otherwise requires—

"Certificate of Status" means an official document that proves the professional standing of a person registered under the Act;

"Committee" means the Training, Assessment, Registration and Human Resources Committee constituted in accordance with rule 3;

"recognized institution" means an institution accredited for the purposes of training under this Act;

"supervisor" means a medical or dental practitioner of specialist status, senior registrar or; community oral health officer of over ten years in practice; appointed by the Council to supervise the training of an intern in any one of the approved disciplines during the period of internship.
PART II – TRAINING
3.
The Committee
(1)

Pursuant to section 4A(1)(c), the Council shall constitute the Inspections, Licensing, Finance and General Purposes Committee consisting of—

(d)

the chairperson who shall be a member of the Council who is a registered medical or dental practitioner;
(e)

two members of the Council; and
(f)

two other persons who have the knowledge and skills co-opted to the Committee by the Council.
(2)

The quorum at meetings of the Committee shall be a simple majority.
(3)

The chairperson of the Committee shall preside over all meetings of the Committee and in the absence of the chairperson, the members of the Council present at the meeting shall elect one of their number to chair the meeting.
(4)

A person co-opted under paragraph (1)(b) shall attend the meetings of the Committee and participate in its deliberations.
(5)

The decisions of the Committee shall be by consensus.
(6)

The Committee shall present its decisions to the Council for approval and ratification.
(7)

Subject to these Rules, the Committee may regulate its own procedure.
4.
Functions of the Committee

The Committee shall—

(a)

consider applications for approval and registration of universities, colleges, teaching hospitals and dental training centers, specialty training sites and internship training centers and any other institutions offering training for medical and dental practitioners;
(b)

develop core curricula for all training programmes under this Act;
(c)

develop guidelines on the requirements for all levels of training under this Act;
(d)

develop approved checklists for evaluating training programmes under this Act;
(e)

approve human resources policies and guidelines;
(f)

recruit and carry out performance appraisals for all senior management staff; and
(g)

perform any other functions on training, assessment, registration and human resources, that may be from time to time assigned by the Council.
5.
Admission criteria for medicine and surgery and dental surgery

A student shall be eligible for admission to the Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery degree, and Bachelor of Dental Surgery degree programme or its equivalent within the Republic of Kenya or in any other jurisdiction if that student satisfies the following admission requirements—

(a)

in the case of the Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education or its equivalent hold the minimum university admission requirement with a score of B (plain) in each of the following cluster subjects—

(i) Biology;
(ii) Chemistry;
(iii) Physics or Mathematics; and
(iv) English or Kiswahili;
(b)

in the case of the Kenya Advanced Certificate of Education holders, a minimum of two principal passes in Biology, Chemistry and a subsidiary pass in either Mathematics or Physics;
(c)

in the case of International General Certificate of Secondary Education at advanced level, an equivalent of C or above in—

(i) Biology as a principle subject;
(ii) Chemistry as principle subject;
(iii) Physics or Mathematics as a subsidiary subject; and
(iv) a score of C in English or Kiswahili at ‘O’ level.
(d)

in the case of International Baccalaureate (IB); a diploma with a minimum of grade 5 or above—

(i) Biology at high level;
(ii) Chemistry at high level;
(iii) Physics or Mathematics at standard level; and
(iv) English or Kiswahili at standard level.
(e)

in the case of Diploma holders of medical sciences, a minimum of "O" level Division II pass on K.A.C.E or C+ (plus) mean grade and a credit C+ pass in the cluster subjects in K.C.S.E., in addition to a three-year diploma with a minimum credit of pass from a training institution recognized by the Council; or
(f)

in the case of clinical medicine, medical sciences, and community health practitioners a degree or diploma, where applicable.
6.
Admission requirements for community oral health officers

A student shall be eligible for admission the Diploma or Degree in community oral health programme or its equivalent within the Republic of Kenya or in any other jurisdiction if that student satisfies the following admission requirements—

(a)

for a diploma programme—

(i) . in the case of Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education or its equivalent hold, the minimum college admission requirement with a score of C (plain) in each of the following cluster subjects English or Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics or Mathematics;
(ii) . in the case of International General Certificate of Secondary Education at advanced level, an equivalent of D or above in—
(b)

for a degree programme—

(i) in the case of Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education holders, the minimum university admission requirement of C+ (plus) with a score of C+ (plus) in each of the following cluster subjects, Mathematics or Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English or Kiswahili.
(ii) in the case of International General Certificate of Secondary Education at advanced level, an equivalent of C or above in—
(iii) for International Baccalaureate (IB); a diploma with a minimum of grade 5 or above—
7.
Record of students
(1)

Pursuant to section 4(1)(a) the Council shall maintain a record of medical and dental students-

(a)

admitted for a training programme approved by the Council under this Act, within Kenya; and
(b)

who are citizens of the Republic of Kenya admitted for a training programme approved by the Council under this Act, outside Kenya;
(2)

The Council may with the authority of the Commission for University Education index the students pursuing medical and dental training programmes in universities.
PART III – ASSESSMENT
8.
Examination requirements
(1)

A person who—

(a)

is citizen of Kenya and
(b)

has acquired a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery degree, or Bachelor of Dental Surgery degree or its equivalent from a university outside Kenya or outside the East African Community;
(c)

who seeks registration under the Act, shall sit for an internship qualifying examination upon presentation of the following documents−

(i) copy of National Identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts; and
(iv) certification from Commission of University Education.
(2)

A person who—

(a)

is citizen of Kenya has acquired a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery degree, or Bachelor of Dental Surgery degree or its equivalent outside Kenya and outside the East African Community; and
(b)

presents evidence of completion of internship in the country in which that person trained, who seeks registration under the Act, shall sit for pre-registration examination upon presentation of the following documents—

(i) copy of National Identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) proof of completion of internship; and
(v) certification from Commission of University Education.
(3)

A person who—

(a)

is a Kenyan citizen or a citizen of the East African Community Partner State;
(b)

is a holder Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery degree, and Bachelor of Dental Surgery degree or its equivalent; who is registered or registerable under the Act; and
(c)

has attained specialist qualification from a training institution outside the jurisdiction of the republic of Kenya, which is recognised by the Council, making him or her eligible for specialist recognition, under the Act, shall undergo a specialist assessment examination upon presentation of the following documents—

(i) copy of valid passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certification from Commission of University Education;
(v) verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(vi) proof of registration;
(vii) proof of licensure, where applicable from the country of origin or other jurisdiction; and
(viii) certificate of status.
(4)

A person who—

(a)

is not a Kenyan citizen or a citizen of the East African Community Partner State;
(b)

is a holder of a degree or other qualification recognized by the Council making that person eligible for registration or is registered under the Act;
(c)

has attained specialist qualification from a training institution outside Kenya, which is recognised by the Council, making him or her eligible for specialist recognition, under the Act, shall undergo a specialist assessment examination upon presentation of the following documents—

(i) copy of valid passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certification from Commission of University Education;
(v) verification of qualifications by a body recognised by the Council;
(vi) proof of registration;
(vii) proof of licensure, where applicable from the country of origin or other jurisdiction; and
(viii) certificate of status.
(5)

The Council may request for additional information where it considers it necessary.
9.
Board of Examiners
(1)

The Council shall upon the recommendation of the Committee appoint a board of examiners, comprising of four medical practitioners, two dental practitioners and one community oral health officer.
(2)

The board of examiners shall—

(a)

appoint examiners;
(b)

coordinate the setting, administration and marking of Council examinations;
(c)

moderating examinations;
(d)

to receive and consider appeals on examinations; and
(e)

prepare and submit examination reports to the Committee for consideration and recommendation to the Council.
(3)

The examiners shall set, administer and mark examinations in accordance with the provisions under this Act.
(4)

The board of examiners shall perform their duties in accordance with the examination policy and guidelines of the Council.
(5)

The Council shall from time to time develop and review the examination policy and guidelines prescribed under the Act.
10.
Conduct of examinations
(1)

The examinations shall be conducted by the board of examiners and shall be held at least three times a year or as prescribed by the Council.
(2)

The board of examiners shall submit the results to the Council.
11.
Repeat examinations

A person who fails an internship qualifying or pre- registration examination shall be allowed two more attempts to re-sit examinations and shall not be eligible for internship or registration if such person fails the examination three times.
12.
Fees for examinations

A candidate who sits an examination shall pay the prescribed fee, at every attempt.
PART IV – INTERNSHIP
13.
Internship

A degree or diploma holder who has passed the internship qualifying examination under rule 8(1) and meets any other requirements set by the Council or shall undergo a prescribed period of internship.
14.
Internship licence

The Council shall issue an internship licence to a medical, dental, or community oral health graduate who meets the internship criteria upon application in accordance with the Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Training, Assessment, Registration and Human Resources) Rules, 2022 and payment of the prescribed fees.
15.
Internship period

A person shall undertake internship for a period of twelve months set out in the Internship Guidelines.
16.
Oaths

A medical, dental or community oral health intern shall take and subscribe to an oath administered by the Council prior to proceeding for internship.
17.
Supervision for interns
(1)

An intern shall undergo internship at an approved internship training centre and shall during the period of internship be supervised by supervisors approved by the Council.
(2)

An internship training centre shall offer an intern every opportunity and facility to enable the intern undergo internship successfully.
18.
Internship assessment
(1)

On completion of internship, an intern shall submit a duly completed logbook and internship assessment forms to the Council.
(2)

Upon successful completion of internship the Council shall issue the intern with an internship completion certificate.
19.
Conditions for recognition of institutions
(1)

The Council shall recognize institutions for internship that meet the following requirements—

(a)

the institution must have published in the Gazette as approved health institution in accordance with the Act;
(b)

in the case of medical interns, capacity to provide constant supervision of interns and by at least one specialist and one other full-time medical practitioner with postgraduate qualification in each of the following disciplines—

(i) medicine;
(ii) paediatrics;
(iii) obstetrics and gynaecology;
(iv) surgery; and
(v) such other specialists or disciplines as may be specified by the Council, from time to time;
(c)

in the case of dental interns—

(i) capacity to provide constant supervision of interns, by at least one specialist and one full-time dental practitioner with postgraduate qualification in each of the following disciplines—
(ii) availability of a fully functional dental laboratory; and
(d)

in the case of Community Oral health interns capacity to provide constant supervision of inters by at least one community oral health officer and one dental practitioner; and
(e)

availability of a medical library and resource centre.
(2)

The Council shall inspect every institution offering internship training to ensure compliance with this rule, from time to time.
20.
Publication of list of recognized institutions

The Council shall each year publish in such manner as may be approved by the Council, a list of all recognized institutions where internship may be undertaken.
21.
Observance of Council guidelines

All approved institutions that provide internship training shall adhere to the standards set out by the Council.
22.
Withdrawal of approval

Any institution that fails to meet the minimum requirements set out in the internship training guidelines shall have its approval withdrawn and the internship training programme suspended by the Council.
PART VIII – REGISTRATION
23.
Application for registration
(1)

An applicant who is eligible for registration under the Act shall apply to the Council in the prescribed form together with payment of the prescribed fee.
(2)

An application in the specified categories shall be accompanied by the following requirements—

(a)

in the case of an application for full registration by a citizen of Kenya who holds a degree or other qualification obtained from a University in Kenya or the East African Community which is recognized by the Council as a medical or dental practitioner under section 6(1) of the Act—

(i) certified copy of national identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) internship completion certificate;
(v) a testimonial from a registered practitioner; and
(vi) current passport size photograph;
(b)

in the case of an application for full registration as a medical or dental practitioner by a citizen of Kenya who holds a degree or other qualification obtained from a University outside Kenya or outside the East African Community under section 6(2) of the Act—

(i) certified copy of national identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certified copy of certification by Commission of University Education on the qualification;
(v) verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(vi) copy of the results of the internship qualifying examinations;
(vii) internship completion certificate;
(viii) a testimonial from a registered practitioner; and
(ix) current passport size photograph;
(c)

in the case of an application for full registration as a medical or dental practitioner by a citizen of Kenya who holds a degree or other qualification obtained from a University outside Kenya or outside the East African Community which is recognized by the Council under section 6(3) of the Act—

(i) certified copy of national identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certified copy of certification by Commission of University Education on the qualification;
(v) verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(vi) internship completion certificate;
(vii) pre-registration examinations certificate;
(viii) a testimonial from a registered practitioner; and
(ix) current passport size photographs;
(d)

in the case of an application for reciprocal registration as a medical or dental practitioner by a citizen of the East African Community who holds a degree or other qualification recognized by the Council under section 6(4) of the Act—

(i) certified copy of national identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certified copy of registration certificate from country of origin;
(v) certificate of status; and
(vi) current passport size photograph;
(e)

in the case of an application for registration as a temporary registration as a foreign medical or dental practitioner by person who is not citizen of Kenya or of a partner state of the East African Community who holds of a degree or other qualification recognized by the Council under section 6(5) of the Act—

(i) certified copy of passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) certified copy of certification by Commission of University Education on the qualification;
(v) verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(vi) registration certificate and practice licence, where applicable, from country of origin or any other jurisdiction;
(vii) certificate of status;
(viii) specialist assessment examination results; and
(ix) current passport size photograph;
(f)

in the case of an application for registration as a community oral health officer—

(i) certified copy of national identification card or passport;
(ii) certified copies of high school certification;
(iii) certified copies of diploma or degree certificates and transcripts;
(iv) internship completion certificate;
(v) a testimonial from a registered practitioner; and
(vi) current passport size photographs.
24.
Additional qualifications
(1)

The Council shall note in the register any higher qualifications obtained by a practitioner upon submission of duly filled application form and certified copies of certificate of the higher qualification.
(2)

For purposes of this rule, "higher qualification" means a post graduate qualification recognized by Commission of University Education.
25.
Specialist and subspecialist recognition
(1)

The Council may recognize a medical or dental practitioner as a specialist as provided in section 11B(1) of the Act in any of the specialty.
(2)

The Council may recognize a medical or dental practitioner who is a citizen of Kenya as a specialist upon application in the prescribed form and payment of the prescribed fees—
(3)

An application under subrule (2) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of master of medicine or master of dental surgery degree certificate and transcripts or the equivalent, awarded after a period not of at least three years in a training institution recognized by the Council; and
(b)

a specialist recognition recommendation form duly filled by a specialist, with at least five years’ experience, recognized by the Council who has been supervising the applicant for a period not less than two years.
(4)

The Council may recognize a medical or dental practitioner who is a member of the East African Community Partner States as a specialist upon application in the prescribed form and payment of the prescribed fees.
(5)

An application under subrule (4) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of the national identity card or passport;
(b)

certified copy of master of medicine or master of dental surgery degree certificate and transcripts or an equivalent as provided for under Schedule−

(i) awarded after a period not less than three years in a training institution recognized by the Council;
(ii) certified copy of certification by Commission of University Education on the qualification;
(iii) verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(iv) specialist assessment examination certificate, where applicable; and
(v) a recommendation letter from a specialist recognized by the Council who has been supervising the applicant for a period not less than two years.
(6)

The Council may recognize a foreign medical or dental practitioner as a specialist upon application in the prescribed form and pay the prescribed fees.
(7)

An application under subrule (6) shall be accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of passport;
(b)

certified copies of degree certificate and transcripts;
(c)

certified copy of master of medicine or master of dental surgery degree certificate and transcripts or an equivalent awarded at least than three years in a training institution recognized by the Council;
(d)

certified copy of certification by the Commission of University Education;
(e)

verification of qualifications by a body recognized by the Council;
(f)

registration certificate as a specialist and practice licence, where applicable, from the country of origin or any other jurisdiction;
(g)

certificate of status; and
(h)

specialist assessment examination certificate.
(8)

The Council may recognize a medical or dental practitioner who is a citizen of Kenya or a citizen of an East African Community Partner State, as a subspecialist under section 11B(3) of the Act in any sub-specialty, upon application and payment of prescribed fees.
(9)

An application under subrule (8) shall accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of the national identity card or passport;
(b)

certificate of specialist recognition in the basic specialty;
(c)

certified copy of master of medicine or master of dental surgery degree certificate and transcripts or an equivalent provided for under Schedule;
(d)

certified copy of sub specialist training qualification certificates and transcripts as provided for under Schedule, awarded after a period not less than six months in a training institution recognized by the Council; and
(e)

a recommendation letter from a subspecialist recognized or recognizable by the Council who has been supervising the applicant for a period not less than one year.
(10)

The Council may recognize a foreign medical or dental practitioner as subspecialist shall upon application in the prescribed form and payment of prescribed fees.
(11)

An application under subrule (10) shall accompanied by—

(a)

certified copy of passport;
(b)

certificate of specialist recognition in the basic specialty from country of origin or any other jurisdiction as provided in the Schedule;
(c)

certified copy of master of medicine or master of dental surgery degree certificate and transcripts or an equivalent provided for under Schedule;
(d)

certified copy of sub specialist training qualification certificates and transcripts, awarded after a at least six months in a training institution recognized by the Council; and
(e)

certificate of registration as a sub specialist and practice licence, where applicable, from the country of origin or any other jurisdiction; and
(f)

certificate of status.
(12)

The Council shall in each year publish in such manner as the Council may determine a list of all recognized medical and dental specialties and sub-specialties.
(13)

Any other requirements that the Council may from time to time require.
26.
Registers

The Council shall maintain registers for the following—

(a)

interns;
(b)

medical and dental practitioners;
(c)

foreign doctors;
(d)

foreign students;
(e)

Kenyan doctors practicing abroad;
(f)

community oral health officers; and
(g)

health institutions.
PART IX – CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT
27.
Conduct of continuing professional development programmes
(1)

The Council shall develop and continuously review continuing professional development guidelines.
(2)

The Council shall accredit eligible continuing professional development providers in line with the continuing professional development guidelines.
28.
Award of points and certificates

The Council shall assign continuing professional development points for each continuing professional development activity.
29.
Register of accredited providers
(1)

The Council shall keep a register of all accredited continuous professional development providers.
(2)

The Council shall use the online iCPD platform to keep track of points earned by practitioners from various continuing professional development activities.
30.
Requirement for continuing educational Programmes

Every continuing professional development or education programme shall emphasize ethical, practical and professional aspects of clinical practice or strategic health planning relevant to the practice of medicine and must be aimed at the improvement of the professional competence of the medical and dental practitioners.
31.
Application for accreditation
(1)

Any person seeking accreditation as a continuing professional development provides shall make an application in that regard to the Council in the prescribed form, and upon payment of the prescribed fees.
(2)

The Council shall consider the application for accreditation and shall approve or reject the same, having regard to the following—
32.
Proof of compliance

Every application for an annual retention certificate shall be accompanied by proof that the applicant has secured fifty points upon attending and participating in the continuing education programmes during the preceding year.
33.
Revocation L.N. 37/2014

The Medical Practitioners and Dentists (Training, Assessment and Registration) Rules (L.N. 37/2014) are revoked.

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